Hi marg:
Well the O.P. by vessr was asking if parallel phrasing between KJB and Book of Mormon was significant or not. Bringing a God into the discussion to address the O.P.'s question detracts from justified reasoning. One can have faith/belief in God..but to rationally address the questions by vessr... God has to be ignored...because a God in one's reasoning can used to argue any position.
In the case of evaluating the Book of Mormon we're talking about a book that was supposed to have been produced supernaturally. In fact the way I read the claims of those early witnesses, the book
couldn't have been produced without the involvement of God in the process. So given that context, I don't know how we can "ignore" the supernatural claims. On the contrary, my position is that the claims have been made and so, in light of those claims, what would we expect? Basically, we'd expect an error free 1830 Book of Mormon (or pretty darn close. I would expect error free, but I suppose one could argue that the printer might have injected a few errors after the fact and corrupted a pristine text, but, again, that limits God's ability to direct the printer not to inject errors, so I would lean toward an error-free text). I think it is then up to TBMs to explain why we don't find that.
So God is irrelevant to the argument. The witnesses made a claim that only when the words were written perfecting could Smith continue. Since there were many errors..their claim to that effect was not supported by the evidence.
Correct. Given that we agree on that, yes, God becomes "irrelevant" because we've ruled out his involvement.
So the evidence does not support claims by the witnesses. For many reasons the witnesses are not credible nor reliable.
Correct.
The O.P. was about whether the parallels between KJB and Book of Mormon were significant enough to draw any probable conclusions from. I do think the parallels are significant to draw the probable conclusion the KJB was copied by the author/authors of the Book of Mormon.
I agree.
Tobin in response to the opening post immediately injected God into the discussion and carried on the discussion as if that was an accepted fact which played a role in the reasoning about who wrote the Book of Mormon. From that point on it was a mistake in my opinion to allow him to do that..because if one is going to inject the supernatural into the discussion anything is then possible and reasoning is irrelevant.
Yes but Tobin believes the Book of Mormon was supernaturally produced and the question of how it was produced is integral to the question posed by the OP. vessr also says:
I sincerely want to know the responses to the above questions from a number of people because I sincerely want to knnow where to turn from here ... to a God, if he exists? Toa religion, if there is a true one? As this is a forum for the exchange of ideas, I ask for everyone's ideas on this.
So I see that as an invitation to join the discussion no matter how you believe the Book of Mormon came to be. I wouldn't expect Tobin to enter the discussion while suppressing his belief in a supernaturally produced Book of Mormon. What I would expect him to do is rationally defend the belief to whatever extent that is possible. He attempts to do so here:
vessr wrote:1) Do these parallelisms create a pattern establishing that Joseph Smith copied New Testament words and phrases as he was translating or writing, as the case may be, the Book of Mormon?
No, because I do not accept the proposition that God would speak differently.
It's an interesting proposition
not to accept. This could be rationally challenged in a number of areas. For example, who is Tobin to limit God in this manner? God
can't "speak differently" because Tobin says so? I don't think so. Or, applying this logic to his adherence to D & 9, how can God allow mistakes to enter the text if Tobin does not allow for variance between what "God said" in the Bible vs. the way the 1830 Book of Mormon reads? Or, how can Joseph Smith "study it out in his mind" if there's only one way it can be said in the first place because Tobin doesn't allow God to "speak differently"? If the answer is: Joseph has to "study it out in his mind" in order to arrive
at the correct rendition, then we're essentially back to the witness's claims that God was correcting everything, which obviously can't be true. So postulating God doesn't necessarily relieve one of presenting a rational defense.
But I think it's also possible to answer vessr's question by saying something like:
"Yes, the parallels show that Joseph Smith copied New Testament words and phrases as he was translating or writing, but that doesn't mean he was a fraud. He simply recognized that the text was quoting the Bible, so, to save time, he opened his Bible."
That's an extremely weak way of answering the question, in my opinion, but it's at least rational. In fact, from what I remember, that's essentially how Dan Vogel justifies his belief in honest-dupes. According to Dan, they didn't think anything was unusual about using a Bible, so they didn't mention it in their testimonies.
It's incredibly weak, but it's at least possible to argue.
Where Dan loses all credibility, IMHO, is when he is then unwilling to extend that logic to anything else. Only the Bible gets a free pass. Only the Bible would not have raised reg flags. Why wouldn't the same thing apply to some document you were convinced
was also divinely inspired? Why would that raise red flags under Dan's logic if the Bible wouldn't? Only because it leads to witnesses forgetting to mention a Spalding manuscript. Oh, but they
specifically denied a Spalding manuscript but never denied a Bible! So we're back to, you gotta trust those honest witnesses! (Or maybe Rigdon "forgot" to mention the fact that he borrowed the manuscript from Spalding!)
"...a pious lie, you know, has a great deal more influence with an ignorant people than a profane one."
- Sidney Rigdon, as quoted in the Quincy Whig, June 8, 1839, vol 2 #6.