Is baptism for the dead really Christian?

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_subgenius
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Re: Is baptism for the dead really Christian?

Post by _subgenius »

Melchett wrote:This is where I get lost. The particular ordinance came into effect in 1840? Everyone up to that point was ushered into the kingdom without any problem, or are they in a celestial waiting room until their name is called?

I've looked into my family history, went to Ireland to try and get more information, but the trail went cold. Records lost and destroyed of family that were living after 1840. There is nothing in existence that I can find before 1878. I'm also a member of Ancestry, and there is nothing there too. That's 38 years of missing family before the (possible) magic date.

actually history shows that the practice was occurring in the 4th century and is arguably mentioned by Paul 1 Cor 15:29, see also the Marcionite practice.
The synod of hippo clearly sets forth a ban for giving the Eucharist to and baptizing the dead by the early christian churches, an obvious support for the notion that death was not considered an obstacle to the receipt of such necessary ordinances.
Having a spiritual proxy is not a foreign concept to the scriptures...after all ,Christ served as a proxy for all mankind with His atonement.

Bottom line is seen in John 3:5 "Except that a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of Go"
Seek freedom and become captive of your desires...seek discipline and find your liberty
I can tell if a person is judgmental just by looking at them
what is chaos to the fly is normal to the spider - morticia addams
If you're not upsetting idiots, you might be an idiot. - Ted Nugent
_subgenius
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Re: Is baptism for the dead really Christian?

Post by _subgenius »

Darth J wrote:Based on Subgenius' couple of anecdotes, I think we can safely infer that every human being who has been born since Christ walked the Earth has reliable documentation somewhere that will prove his or her existence.

I am open to any argument that would propose that there is evidence of a person(s) that can not be proven to have existed.....however, no one has brought forth any evidence to date.
All i have seen is speculation and imagination that there is, in fact, a person(s) that can not be proven to have ever existed.
Seek freedom and become captive of your desires...seek discipline and find your liberty
I can tell if a person is judgmental just by looking at them
what is chaos to the fly is normal to the spider - morticia addams
If you're not upsetting idiots, you might be an idiot. - Ted Nugent
_canpakes
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Re: Is baptism for the dead really Christian?

Post by _canpakes »

subgenius wrote:then how could one possibly make the brash proclamation that these people have been living there "thousands of years".
In fact you can only speak to their current existence, and with that they become "documented".


Not brash at all. We have evidence of their continued existence in many cases. Or, we have evidence of past cultures who did not leave behind any written records.

I suppose that we could look at the cave paintings in Lascaux and note that while some activities were recorded in artistic form, there would appear to be nothing found recorded for geneology.

I suspect that between the two of us, you are making the 'more brash' statement, but that's just my opinion. : )


pretty sure no one has ever seen Christ's birth certificate, or even Ghengis Khan's....try not have such a narrow focused post.


No, we haven't. I don't suppose we'd need either to perform a proxy baptism for either. But, most folks who've walked the earth lack such historical fame, yes? I'd wager that most individuals - until comparatively recent times - lived their lives relatively anonymously and have passed without written record of their name, or if recorded at some point with that record having survived against all odds, given the transitory nature of recording materials available in past days.


200 years ago if you described ancestry.com to a person they would think you were nuts and would likely claim that such "documentation" would be impossible, because it was not a "practical reality".


This is not a good example of what we're talking about. Ancestry.com doesn't do anything more than allow the access and linking of records already in existence. It does not itself create new records for people who have no records.

Again, we're back to the point of it being difficult to perform baptisms for folks for which no records exist, because no records were created for them.


then i suggest you also reference Elaine Pagels work on Gnostics, and, of course, read the Book of Mormon.


I can check out Pagels - thank you.

I have read the Book of Mormon but may have missed the topic. Within, where would you direct me to in order to learn more about baptisms for the dead?
_Melchett
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Re: Is baptism for the dead really Christian?

Post by _Melchett »

subgenius wrote:
Melchett wrote:This is where I get lost. The particular ordinance came into effect in 1840? Everyone up to that point was ushered into the kingdom without any problem, or are they in a celestial waiting room until their name is called?

I've looked into my family history, went to Ireland to try and get more information, but the trail went cold. Records lost and destroyed of family that were living after 1840. There is nothing in existence that I can find before 1878. I'm also a member of Ancestry, and there is nothing there too. That's 38 years of missing family before the (possible) magic date.

actually history shows that the practice was occurring in the 4th century and is arguably mentioned by Paul 1 Cor 15:29, see also the Marcionite practice.
The synod of hippo clearly sets forth a ban for giving the Eucharist to and baptizing the dead by the early christian churches, an obvious support for the notion that death was not considered an obstacle to the receipt of such necessary ordinances.
Having a spiritual proxy is not a foreign concept to the scriptures...after all ,Christ served as a proxy for all mankind with His atonement.

Bottom line is seen in John 3:5 "Except that a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of Go"


I'm aware of this, and there are many interpretations to what Paul was actually referring to.

If I'm understanding you correctly, everyone that has lived since the ban by the Synod of Hippo has to be baptised.

As I asked, where are these souls now, and what about the records of these people? Are you really saying that everyone can find every ancestor they have?
_Buffalo
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Re: Is baptism for the dead really Christian?

Post by _Buffalo »

Early Christians had to discontinue the practice because this kept happening:

Image
Parley P. Pratt wrote:We must lie to support brother Joseph, it is our duty to do so.

B.R. McConkie, © Intellectual Reserve wrote:There are those who say that revealed religion and organic evolution can be harmonized. This is both false and devilish.
_MCB
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Re: Is baptism for the dead really Christian?

Post by _MCB »

Yeah, it offends the dead and leads to horrible hauntings and plagues of throat-cutting zombies. Not a recommended practice.
Huckelberry said:
I see the order and harmony to be the very image of God which smiles upon us each morning as we awake.

http://www.vatican.va/archive/ccc_css/a ... cc_toc.htm
_subgenius
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Re: Is baptism for the dead really Christian?

Post by _subgenius »

canpakes wrote:... I'd wager that most individuals - until comparatively recent times - lived their lives relatively anonymously and have passed without written record of their name...

first of all we are speaking about "documentation" not a specific written record of a name (a point for later discussion, perhaps)
second, the glaring hole in your argument is found in how, though you may wager, you can not prove the above statement by you.
You can not point to a single person, living or dead, and claim "that person is completely unknown".
For by your very exclamation you have provided them with an identity, with a basis for record...you have, in fact, documented them. Granted not the most elaborate method, but it illustrates a point that you have yet to resolve.
You "assume" that there is a person(s) which will be forever unknown and forever unknowable....and i assume otherwise.
all i am asking for is the evidence by which you make your assumption....or is it just a gut feeling?
Seek freedom and become captive of your desires...seek discipline and find your liberty
I can tell if a person is judgmental just by looking at them
what is chaos to the fly is normal to the spider - morticia addams
If you're not upsetting idiots, you might be an idiot. - Ted Nugent
_Melchett
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Re: Is baptism for the dead really Christian?

Post by _Melchett »

subgenius wrote:first of all we are speaking about "documentation" not a specific written record of a name (a point for later discussion, perhaps)


I'm puzzled. What is the difference between documentation and not having a specific record of a name? Surely, you need a name to carry out the baptism?

subgenius wrote:second, the glaring hole in your argument is found in how, though you may wager, you can not prove the above statement by you.
You can not point to a single person, living or dead, and claim "that person is completely unknown".


I'll point at my Irish ancestors. My great-great-great-grandfather. He is completely unknown.

subgenius wrote:You "assume" that there is a person(s) which will be forever unknown and forever unknowable....and i assume otherwise.
all i am asking for is the evidence by which you make your assumption....or is it just a gut feeling?


I would like to know your evidence to the contrary of your assumption.
_canpakes
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Re: Is baptism for the dead really Christian?

Post by _canpakes »

subgenius wrote:
canpakes wrote:... I'd wager that most individuals - until comparatively recent times - lived their lives relatively anonymously and have passed without written record of their name...

first of all we are speaking about "documentation" not a specific written record of a name (a point for later discussion, perhaps)


Unless I an ill-informed, I believe that the ordinance, when practiced, uses elements of a 'written record' - in other words, a name, at the very least. Otherwise, what would be the purpose of spending so much effort on family history when one could merely do ordinances for, as example, "my great-great-great-grandmother, who's name, birthdate and circumstances I know nothing about"?


second, the glaring hole in your argument is found in how, though you may wager, you can not prove the above statement by you.
You can not point to a single person, living or dead, and claim "that person is completely unknown".


OK, you can call it a 'glaring hole'. I tend to see it as a realistic assessment, since very little can be definitively 'proven' (perhaps nothing in the existential sense! :) ). As example, if I remove you from your surroundings and relatives and destroy all records of your birth, you cannot 'prove' your family history or connection to anyone. Nor (as another example) can I, to rephrase your statement above, prove that a unicorn does not exist, or that you cannot fly by merely flapping your arms in just the precise sort of way that would be required. We can argue with these parameters, but I don't see it as effective or practical.


For by your very exclamation you have provided them with an identity, with a basis for record...you have, in fact, documented them. Granted not the most elaborate method, but it illustrates a point that you have yet to resolve.


Not quite correct. Within my exclamation, I have acknowledged that they exist, but this is not what we mean by 'documenting' them, if we are to accept the traditional definitions of 'document'.

As example - I know that I have a logical line of existence from myself that stretches all of the way back to the very inception of the simplest elements of my genetic material. There can be no other way to explain why I am here - regardless of if the genesis of that material was arrived at by a process of evolution or via Adam and Eve. Stating this fact does not 'document' the entire chain of my relatives that I know must exist. It merely acknowledges their existence.

Thus, you seem to want to go down a rabbit hole that does not really relate to the question at hand. If the method used to do baptism for the dead requires more information than to simply know that those people existed, then we need documentation, or identification, or whatever you wish to term it. Otherwise, baptism for the dead can be streamlined into one visit to cover all individuals along the genealogical trail. Correct?


You "assume" that there is a person(s) which will be forever unknown and forever unknowable....and i assume otherwise.
all i am asking for is the evidence by which you make your assumption....or is it just a gut feeling?


Seems like a 'gut feeling' - some call it faith - is sufficient to hold a conclusion as truthful' for a great many folks, yes?
_Franktalk
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Re: Is baptism for the dead really Christian?

Post by _Franktalk »

Psa 147:4 He telleth the number of the stars; he calleth them all by their names.

I wonder why it is that we ask these questions. If called upon to do Baptisms for the dead then we should do all we can and then we need God's help He will surely help. Should we go forth in faith that what we do on earth will have an impact on the spiritual world?

Let me ask a question. Just what is being Baptized, the body or the spirit? If the spirit which is eternal then a proxy Baptism makes perfect sense.
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