Anachronisms in the Book of Moses

[_Patriarchal gripe]

Now I'm sure this isn't anything new to the hardbitten old salts around this place, but can someone please explain to this noob how it is possible that there could be an anachronism in the Book of Moses.

As all good Mormons are aware, the prophet Joseph Smith was commanded to begin an inspired translation, or revision, of the King James Version of the Bible. Between June 1830 and February 1831, the Prophet completed Genesis 1:1 through 6:13. Mormons understand that the changes made to Genesis were made by revelation from God.

Now, please reference The Pearl of Great Price Student Manual, Religion 327, pages 40 and 82. On page 40 Abraham 4:2 is described as being the correct translation of both Genesis 1:2 AND MOSES 2:2.

The manual says specifically, "The Prophet Joseph Smith indicated that the translation 'without form, and void,' as found in Genesis 1:2 and Moses 2:2, should read 'empty and desolate,' as it does in Abraham 4:2 (See Teachings of the Prophet Joseph Smith, 181)."


Can someone explain to me how God can't get his correct version right through inspiration the first time?

[_zeezrom]

God did indeed get it right the first time but the Bible was corrupted by Satan's followers and people lacking the priesthood. Luckily, Peter and his two buds gave Joseph the priesthood so he could be a much more precise translator.

There are people out there who actually think the first vision is more important than Peter's visit. Can you believe it?!

[_Patriarchal gripe]

God did indeed get it right the first time but the Bible was corrupted by Satan's followers and people lacking the priesthood. Luckily, Peter and his two buds gave Joseph the priesthood so he could be a much more precise translator.

There are people out there who actually think the first vision is more important than Peter's visit. Can you believe it?!

I guess I wasn't too clear on my question. Let me rephrase it. How did God not get the Joseph Smith Translation right the first time, but needed the Book of Abraham to fix the Book of Moses? I wasn't referring to the KJV Bible. We all know that evil men from the great and abominable screwed that up.

[_zeezrom]

Oh I see. Well, that's a good question! One that I had never considered.

[_Everybody Wang Chung]

God did indeed get it right the first time but the Bible was corrupted by Satan's followers and people lacking the priesthood. Luckily, Peter and his two buds gave Joseph the priesthood so he could be a much more precise translator.

There are people out there who actually think the first vision is more important than Peter's visit. Can you believe it?!

I guess I wasn't too clear on my question. Let me rephrase it. How did God not get the Joseph Smith Translation right the first time, but needed the Book of Abraham to fix the Book of Moses? I wasn't referring to the KJV Bible. We all know that evil men from the great and abominable screwed that up.

The answer is simple. From the Book of Mormon we learn that God is an underachiever in many areas. God probably wasn't on his A game when it came to the Book of Moses and poor Joseph just had to do his best. Why would you even question this?