Will Schryver: Kneel before Zod

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_harmony
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Post by _harmony »

Runtu wrote:
charity wrote:
Even IF one is totally convinced that the production of the Book of Abraham has serious issues of crediblity, what do you do about the textual evidence which has some pretty overhwelming aspects to it? Cry coincidence?


I haven't seen any overwhelming textual evidence. Can you give me some idea of what that might be?


I'm also wondering what that would be. Charity? Where art thou, charity?
_CaliforniaKid
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Post by _CaliforniaKid »

When I addressed Will's argument back in June, I did several things:

1) I pointed out that another verse, about which there evidently wasn't any confusion, says the figures were "at the beginning", and
2) I pointed to the larger body of evidence which shows that Joseph and his scribes believed the PJS XI was the Book of Abraham.

Will responded that "None of your reply addresses the reason why there was obviously some uncertainty/confusion/second-thoughts about how to make reference to the illustration...The logical conclusion is that the relationship of the location of the text and the illustration was not such that they were adjacent to each other. If, as Gee suggests, Seyffarth did make reference to a text that followed the Sensen document, that would help to explain the emendations that we see in the manuscripts."

3) I pointed out that the Seyffarth argument has essentially been dismantled, as Gee all but admitted to me in our telephone conversation. (He said something along the lines of, "OK, I see your point." And then pulled his "mathematical formula" out of his hat.) I also mentioned that Seyffarth's statement constitutes excellent evidence against Will's theory.
4) I pointed out Paul Osborne's eminently reasonable explanation for why this variant occurs in the manuscripts.
5) I tried to get Will to explain how he thinks this manuscript variant came about, in terms of manuscript pedigrees. He didn't stick around for the fun.

In addition to the points I made then, I should add this. Will's statement that "the logical conclusion is that the relationship of the location of the text and the illustration was not such that they were adjacent to each other" is erroneous unless we employ some additional methodological principle. In order to achieve logical entailment, we basically have to have at least two propositions, in the form of a syllogism or some other kind of logical inference. At this point Will only has one proposition: "there was obviously some uncertainty/confusion/second-thoughts about how to make reference to the illustration." What's the other leg of this argument? I can suggest a couple possibilities:

The original reading at this locus completely omitted any reference to location.
The original reading of any locus is the true reading.
Therefore, the true reading at this locus completely omits any reference to location.

-OR-

There was obviously some uncertainty/confusion/second-thoughts at this locus about how to make reference to the illustration.
All points of uncertainty/confusion/second-thoughts should be decided in favor of the most faith-promoting option.
Omission of reference to location at this locus is the most faith-promoting option.
Therefore, the uncertainty/confusion/second-thoughts at this locus should be decided in favor of omission of reference to location.

In either case, we have to have yet another proposition to get from "the true reading at this locus completely omits any reference to location" to "the logical conclusion is that the relationship of the location of the text and the illustration was not such that they were adjacent to each other." In the second argument, we can merely repeat the application of our principle, "All points of uncertainty/confusion/second-thoughts should be decided in favor of the most faith-promoting option." In the first argument, however, I am at a loss to explain how we arrive at Mr. Schryver's conclusion.

What say you, Master Schryver?

-Chris
_harmony
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Post by _harmony »

CaliforniaKid wrote:What say you, Master Schryver?

-Chris


If he says anything, I, for one, will be impressed with his guts. So far, the score is at Critics 752 Apologists 0.
_charity
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Post by _charity »

Runtu wrote:
charity wrote:
Even IF one is totally convinced that the production of the Book of Abraham has serious issues of crediblity, what do you do about the textual evidence which has some pretty overhwelming aspects to it? Cry coincidence?


I haven't seen any overwhelming textual evidence. Can you give me some idea of what that might be?


For those of you who expressed such sincere concern at my absence from the board most of the day, let me assure you I am still alive and well. I was away from my computer almost all day. I was teaching two classes, getting a new wheelchair, having lunch with my husband and shopping for some supplies to make angels for Christmas decorations. I had a good time.

It appears that the profile has been edited,and I don't know what I did differently this time from the other 4 times I tried. I freely admit to being very technologically challenged.

Now to the topic at hand.

Now, runtu, this is one piece of textual evidence. When the Book of Abraham was published archeologists/anthropologists thought that Abraham's homeland had been in an area in Mesopotamia. However, more recenlty the focus has shifted to an area of southern Syria which is more in line with the culture shown in the Bible. In this new area supposed to be more accurately the home of Abraham, there is a plain of Olishem.

Abr. 1: 10 Even the thank-offering of a child did the priest of Pharaoh offer upon the altar which stood by the hill called Potiphar’s Hill, at the head of the plain of Olishem.

Of course, their are some variants in the translation of the name from different scholars. From what I read, the differences are not significant and are to be expected.

So what do you think?

In a previous post Kevin says the thinks that any evidence is fabricated or exaggerated.

It seems to me to be a two step "coincidence." First, Joseph would have had to have rejected the location than the science of his day thought the most likely. Second, he would have had to have guessed a correct location.

What do you think, runtu? And others who are
_Runtu
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Post by _Runtu »

charity wrote:For those of you who expressed such sincere concern at my absence from the board most of the day, let me assure you I am still alive and well. I was away from my computer almost all day. I was teaching two classes, getting a new wheelchair, having lunch with my husband and shopping for some supplies to make angels for Christmas decorations. I had a good time.

It appears that the profile has been edited,and I don't know what I did differently this time from the other 4 times I tried. I freely admit to being very technologically challenged.

Now to the topic at hand.

Now, runtu, this is one piece of textual evidence. When the Book of Abraham was published archeologists/anthropologists thought that Abraham's homeland had been in an area in Mesopotamia. However, more recenlty the focus has shifted to an area of southern Syria which is more in line with the culture shown in the Bible. In this new area supposed to be more accurately the home of Abraham, there is a plain of Olishem.

Abr. 1: 10 Even the thank-offering of a child did the priest of Pharaoh offer upon the altar which stood by the hill called Potiphar’s Hill, at the head of the plain of Olishem.

Of course, their are some variants in the translation of the name from different scholars. From what I read, the differences are not significant and are to be expected.

So what do you think?

In a previous post Kevin says the thinks that any evidence is fabricated or exaggerated.

It seems to me to be a two step "coincidence." First, Joseph would have had to have rejected the location than the science of his day thought the most likely. Second, he would have had to have guessed a correct location.

What do you think, runtu? And others who are


Well, it would really be nice to see a citation. Just saying. :)
Runtu's Rincón

If you just talk, I find that your mouth comes out with stuff. -- Karl Pilkington
_charity
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Post by _charity »

Runtu wrote:
charity wrote:What do you think, runtu? And others who are interested.


Well, it would really be nice to see a citation. Just saying. :)


This is from "Review of By His Own Hand Upon Papyrus: A New Look at the Joseph Smith Papyri by Charles M. Larson
Reviewed By: John Gee Provo, Utah: Maxwell Institute, 1992. Pp. 93–119

http://maxwellinstitute.BYU.edu/display ... view&id=92

The two footnotes to the cited material are these:

64. John M. Lundquist, "Was Abraham at Ebla? A Cultural Background of the Book of Abraham," in Robert L. Millet and Kent P. Jackson, eds., Studies in Scripture (Salt Lake City: Randall Book, 1985), 225-37. The citation of Ú-li-si-imki looks rather removed in Naram-Sin b 5.2.13 (= UET I 275.2.13), but this is only because Lundquist, following Hans Hirsch ("Die Inschriften der Könige von Agade," Archiv für Orientforschung 20 [1963]: 74), has transliterated the signs without taking into regard the fact that for the place and time the si sign should be read sé (Wolfram von Soden, Das akkadische Syllabar [Rome: Pontificium Institutum Biblicum, 1948], 43; the im sign can also be read em; ibid., 73), leaving the reading as Ú-li-se-em. The area is also particularly prone to the Canaanite shift, which would render the name as "Olishem." To Lundquist's citation of E. Kautsch and A. E. Cowley, Gesenius' Hebrew Grammar (Oxford: Clarendon, 1910), 48-49, add Sabatino Moscati et al., An Introduction to the Comparative Grammar of the Semitic Languages: Phonology and Morphology (Wiesbaden: Harrassowitz, 1980), 48-49.

65. Paul Y. Hoskisson, "Where Was Ur of the Chaldees?" in H. Donl Peterson and Charles D. Tate, Jr., eds., The Pearl of Great Price: Revelations from God (Provo, UT: Religious Studies Center, Brigham Young University, 1989), 119-36.


I'll be interested also to see who here are independent thinkers, and who here are Kevin's toadys.
_Runtu
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Post by _Runtu »

charity wrote:
I'll be interested also to see who here are independent thinkers, and who here are Kevin's toadys.


Ribbet. :)

I'll have to check out the citations. Thanks for the references.

Edit: Well, a quick perusal of the article gets us this:

1. Abraham claims that his story starts out near a place called "Olishem" (Abraham 1:10), and that place name is indeed attested in newly discovered inscriptions from approximately Abraham's time.


Which inscriptions? How close to Abraham's time and place? Gee doesn't say, so we don't have much to go on.

Ú-li-si-imki then morphs to Ú-li-se-em which then morphs into Olishem, apparently because that's how it would be pronounced in that time and place. Which time and place? Again, Gee doesn't tell us. So, not nearly enough information to make any conclusions.

Does anyone have access to Lundquist's article? If not, I don't have enough information here to make any kind of judgment.
Runtu's Rincón

If you just talk, I find that your mouth comes out with stuff. -- Karl Pilkington
_CaliforniaKid
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Post by _CaliforniaKid »

Runtu wrote:
charity wrote:
I'll be interested also to see who here are independent thinkers, and who here are Kevin's toadys.


Ribbet. :)

I'll have to check out the citations. Thanks for the references.

Edit: Well, a quick perusal of the article gets us this:

1. Abraham claims that his story starts out near a place called "Olishem" (Abraham 1:10), and that place name is indeed attested in newly discovered inscriptions from approximately Abraham's time.


Which inscriptions? How close to Abraham's time and place? Gee doesn't say, so we don't have much to go on.

Ú-li-si-imki then morphs to Ú-li-se-em which then morphs into Olishem, apparently because that's how it would be pronounced in that time and place. Which time and place? Again, Gee doesn't tell us. So, not nearly enough information to make any conclusions.

Does anyone have access to Lundquist's article? If not, I don't have enough information here to make any kind of judgment.


I'll happily email it to you, if you provide your address.

The inscription is by Naram-sin, a Mesopotamian king who brags about having conquered all the way to the Upper (Mediterranean) Sea, from Ulisum to some mountain range whose name I forget. He does not specify whether Ulisum is a plain, a city, a mountain, or something else altogether. Presumably it was a sufficiently major landmark that he presumed his readers would know what he was talking about.

I feel that probably what he was referring to was the city that appears in the Egyptian Execration Texts, where it is referred to as Ullaza. This is probably something that I should keep to myself and write an article about someday, but as I'm unlikely to ever have the linguistic expertise to do so, anyone here who does have said expertise has my blessing. Just credit me for the idea. ;-) I ran it by David Bokovoy and this is what he said:

Hey David,

I figured you'd be a good person to ask about this, since you know the Semitic languages pretty well. Do you think the Syrian toponym called "Ullaza" in the Egyptian execration texts could be one and the same as Naram-Sin's Ulisum? The locations are compatible, as far as I can tell, but I don't know about the linguistics. I have a PDF of Wolfgang Helck's comments about Ullaza in his North Syrian toponyms tome, but it's in German, so I can't make heads or tails of it.


That's very interesting. It's possible, since the sibilants z and s are interchangeable in Semitic languages. The -um ending would be disregarded as an Akkadian case ending plus mimation. More than that would take a bit of research.


Ullaza was a sizeable city in the right region.

You might also be interested in my exchanges with Her Amun on the subject, which are mercifully brief:

http://www.mormonapologetics.org/index. ... &hl=Ulisum
http://www.mormonapologetics.org/index. ... &hl=Ulisum

The biggest problem in all this is that the Book of Abraham retains Genesis' anachronism "land of the Chaldeans". The Chaldeans don't show up till much later in history, and tradition seems to have them migrating into Mesopotamia from the south, i.e. Arabia. Ulisum was a seaside city in Syria. I believe Lundquist tries to make a case for the Chaldeans having been in Syria at the time of Abraham, but I've not read the article so I don't know what evidence he adduces. Maybe Runtu can read it and inform us.

-Chris
_dartagnan
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Post by _dartagnan »

I'll be interested also to see who here are independent thinkers, and who here are Kevin's toadys.


“Kevin’s toadys?”

Here you go again invoking the titles you have come to deserve. You really are a glutton for punishment aren’t you?

I don't expect anyone to just believe what I say because I say it, and I don't know anyone who does. I present a side and I expect people to use their brains to detemine which side has the best case. This is contrary to what you and the apologists want. You want all readers to avoid the critical side at all costs because you know they would be convinced of it. Without a preexisting "testimony" nobody could believe this nonsense, and some of your ow apologists have unwittingly admitted this.

You want people to read FARMS because that is all you read. You don't know any better. Yoú live in a shell and you're ruled by a theology that tells you anything critical is of the devil. So no, you're not an independent thinker. You're an independent spinner.

Charity, you just proved that you are not an independent thinker. You have not researched any of this beyond clicking on a FARMS link and naïvely accepting whatever you read while passing it along in cut and paste format. Any moron with a mouse could do this (and many do). The fact is you have not tested any of these claims. You have never gone to a library and researched the footnotes in a Nibley or Gee apologetic. You operate on the gullible assumption that these guys are honest and really place truth before testimony spinach. All you have done is accept without question, John Gee’s apologetics, and declared his statement to be some kind of amazing evidence. Look at the footnotes. His sources are strictly LDS writers and as CK just noted, David Bokovoy admitted the possibility that it could have been referring to another place entirely. By LDS apologetic standards, the “possibility” that it could mean something else, completely undermines the original dogmatic assertion. Or is that only when other possibilities can explain a critic’s assertion?

Why didn’t you continue pasting the “evidences” found in Gee’s “review”? Like this bit of insanity:

Most of Joseph Smith's interpretations of the fac-similes have been shown to be in the right general ballpark although "there has been little or no work done on [these types of texts by Egyptologists] since the end of the last century."


The citation following the assertion adds nothing to the amazing claim. Joseph Smith’s translations of facsimile 3 in particular are so off the wall that my three year old could have been more successful describing the characters properly. She knows men don’t usually wear dresses and that being black doesn’t mean you’re a slave. Why is Gee lying to his audience? Can he name any Egyptologists outside the LDS Church (meaning, outside John Gee) who agree with this assessment that Joseph Smith was “in the ball park”?

And then we have this bit of “evidence” from the same review:

The astronomy detailed in the book of Abraham does not match the heliocentric astronomy of Joseph Smith's or our own time, but can only be a geocentric astronomy like that characteristic of the ancient Mediterranean world


His source? Another apologetic piece written by Dan Peterson and Bill Hamblin. I love how FARMS reviewers continuously cite each other as authorities to back up their own speculations. The proposition set forth by Hamblin and Peterson is highly suspect at best, but most likely erroneous given the evidence they had to circumvent in order to reach this conclusion. These guys ignore all the evidence that point in the other direction. They don’t deal with the amazing similarities between the Book of Abraham and Thos Dick’s book, which Joseph Smith owned. According to LDS scholar Klaus Hansen,

According to the Book of Abraham, the patriarch had a knowledge of the times of various planets, "until thou come nigh unto Kolob which Kolob is after the reckoning of the Lord's time; which Kolob is set nigh unto the throne of God, to govern all those planets which belong to the same order as that upon which thou standest." One revolution of Kolob "was a day unto the Lord, after his manner of reckoning, it being one thousand years according to the time appointed unto that whereon thou standest. This is the reckoning of the Lord's time according to the reckoning of Kolob." God's time thus conformed perfectly to the laws of Galilean relativity and Newtonian mechanics." (http://zarahemlacitylimits.com/essays/M ... BOA_8.html)


And then this truly embarrassing argument by Gee:

David Cameron discovered an Egyptian lion couch scene much like Facsimile 1 explicitly mentioning the name Abraham


As already noted, Ed Ashment makes mincemeat of Gee on this point, proving that the mention of Abraham on a facsimile had nothing to do with the historic figure and everything to do with the fact that it was an appropriate term to use because it began with “Abr.” (http://www.irr.org/mit/ashment1.html)

So what’s left charity? Every “parallel” mentioned in Peterson’s 1994 ensign article has fallen through the cracks upon further critical assessment (offered, not by other LDS, but the independent thinkers on the other side of the fence). Of the five or six mentioned in Gee’s article you only provided one, because you knew the others have since bitten the dust. And now, thanks to Bokovoy’s unsuspecting admission that this term could be in reference to something entirely different, it appears the Olishem connection is just another stretch.

You see what happens here is the same thing that happens with William. They all sit down and think hard about ways the Book of Abraham could be considered ancient. They pick things out of the Book of Abraham and say to themselves, “Now if we could just find something in the ancient texts that resembles this, it would be good apologetic fodder.” And that is what we are witnessing here.

So they begin with the premise that the Book of Abraham would have the same world view as the ancients and begin drawing any kind of parallel they can. They begin with the premise that Olishem is where Abraham lived, so they read whatever evidence they can dig up, no matter how vague and subjectively interpreted it might be, to meet that conclusion.

They do not approach this objectively in the sense that they let the evidence take them where it may. This is how scholarship generally operates, but not the LDS apologetics at FARMS. These guys begin with a conclusion and then force the evidence to meet that conclusion. The same goes with Lundquist, who probably stayed up many nights pounding the lexicons trying to find some twisted means to extract an Olishem rendering from the “ancient texts.”
“All knowledge of reality starts from experience and ends in it...Propositions arrived at by purely logical means are completely empty as regards reality." - Albert Einstein
_charity
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Post by _charity »

dartagnan wrote:

“Kevin’s toadys?”

Here you go again invoking the titles you have come to deserve. You really are a glutton for punishment aren’t you?

I don't expect anyone to just believe what I say because I say it, and I don't know anyone who does. I present a side and I expect people to use their brains to detemine which side has the best case. This is contrary to what you and the apologists want. You want all readers to avoid the critical side at all costs because you know they would be convinced of it. Without a preexisting "testimony" nobody could believe this nonsense, and some of your ow apologists have unwittingly admitted this.

You want people to read FARMS because that is all you read. You don't know any better. Yoú live in a shell and you're ruled by a theology that tells you anything critical is of the devil. So no, you're not an independent thinker. You're an independent spinner.

Charity, you just proved that you are not an independent thinker. You have not researched any of this beyond clicking on a FARMS link and naïvely accepting whatever you read while passing it along in cut and paste format. Any moron with a mouse could do this (and many do). The fact is you have not tested any of these claims. You have never gone to a library and researched the footnotes in a Nibley or Gee apologetic. You operate on the gullible assumption that these guys are honest and really place truth before testimony spinach. All you have done is accept without question, John Gee’s apologetics, and declared his statement to be some kind of amazing evidence. Look at the footnotes. His sources are strictly LDS writers and as CK just noted, David Bokovoy admitted the possibility that it could have been referring to another place entirely. By LDS apologetic standards, the “possibility” that it could mean something else, completely undermines the original dogmatic assertion. Or is that only when other possibilities can explain a critic’s assertion?


I want readers on the board to consider what others have to say, and not just your version of what they have to say. You are a pretty big dog in this pack. It seems like a lot of them roll over and expose their bellies when you enter the room to let you know they will let you dominate them. I think the reason you keep snarling at me is because I don't.

You have put yourself forward as an expert on this subject. I suppose you do know quite a bit about it. Not your own research, but that you read what a lot of other people have researched and published. But you aren't objective. You have a viewpoint as biased as any apologist you care to name. But in everything I have read from you on the subject, you have not ever said "In my opinnioin" or "the way I interpret this" etc. You make flat out statements that this is the way it is. And you expect all the little puppies to take your word for it.

Your behavior toward other scholars is not "scholarly." If someone disagrees with you they are stupid, ignorant, lying, idiots, etc. This is not the enlightened scholar leading others to truth. It is an ego in search of a reputation.

I merely want the other readers here to look at the material themselves.
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