Hi there, Wade. I'll go ahead and do my best:
wenglund wrote:1. What reasons did governments have to regulate and sanction (i.e. extend the legal right of marriage to) opposite-sex marriages to begin with?
Well, I'm not that familiar with the history of marriage law, but as far as I know, EAllusion already answered your question, and I believe he's correct:
EAllusion wrote:That said, governmental regulation of marriage arose organically and independently in different cultures generally, though not exclusively, as a means of forming, controlling, and resolving disputes over property distribution between families.
Can you cite or quote a different reason?
2. Do these same reasons apply to SSM?
Yes, of course.
3. What has been the track-record of legalized SSM thus far?
So far as I know, just fine.
4. With the answers to the above questions in mind, does it make sense to legalize SSM?
Yes, of course.
Thanks, -Wade Englund-
My pleasure, Wade.
"[I]f, while hoping that everybody else will be honest and so forth, I can personally prosper through unethical and immoral acts without being detected and without risk, why should I not?." --Daniel Peterson, 6/4/14