Ben:
Due to time limits I will respond to a few things now and the rest when time permits....
Roger, the issue is that it ezplains the totality of the evidence as you INTERPRET it. But that's a circular argument. In discussions involving textual criticism (like claims of dependancy, borrowing, plagiairism and intertextuality), you start from the text, you don't start by creating scenarios and then interpreting the text to fit.
Note the bolding above.... you seem to be nit-picking about the order of things. The most likely scenario for "claims of dependancy, borrowing, plagiairism and intertextuality" to develop is for someone to notice similarities between the two texts in question. This is EXACTLY what happened in both cases--BOM/Spalding; Spalding-1838 Smith. You might want to argue that Hurlbut concoted the witness statements linking the Book of Mormon to Spalding, but I think you would be hardpressed to prove it. I've read Brodie and I'm not convinced.
And in the case of Spalding-1838 Smith this is exactly what has happened. Dale noticed similarities in the two texts which prompted him to further investigation.
If you think that those of us who see a relationship between the data and the Spalding-Rigdon authorship claims have "
created" that scenario and then attempt to "interpret the text to fit" you are simply mistaken in that assumption. We did not create the S/R claims. Nevertheless, for those who reject S/R it must be annoying that the text
can so easily be interpreted to fit.
I have seen such evidence. Unfortunately you are going to have to wait, since I don't feel it is appropriate for me to discuss it at this point in time. I know this sounds like a cop out. I am more than happy to talk about other issues though. I will say that on the flip side of the coin, I haven't yet seen any solid, logical arguments that actually support the S-R theory.
Yes, it does sound like a cop-out. I can't do much with what you've seen but can't share.
And my response to this is quite simple Roger - presenting a mountain of bad evidence doesn't make a good case.
I agree. You have not demonstrated tainted evidence. Instead you acknowledge the parallels are indeed parallels. You simply want us to believe they are not significant parallels because you can allegedly cite "thousands" of others. To demonstrate your point you cited another story with three similar items and a number of differences. So far I do not find your counter-argument compelling for reasons I've already stated.
You might have a point if many of these similarities were good - that is, they were somehow unique, or weren't found in other sources - but that really isn't the case here. When we start pulling the bad examples out, it isn't really a context of "all the similarities". And testimony has no real place in this discussion.
I beg to differ. I think testimony has a prominent place in this discussion. When Oliver Cowdery claims to have a personal witness of the Book of Mormon, I have to take that in to account along with all the other things Oliver Cowdery said. If Oliver can be show to have been a habitual liar, then his testimony of the Book of Mormon is suspect. If not, then one must seriously consider his Book of Mormon testimony.
As far as I am aware, the vast majority of those who testified to hearing Spalding's manuscript and say that it was very similar to the Book of Mormon did not have reputations of being habitual liars.
The testimony is the key. It is the spark that got investigations going. And since you want textual investigation to start with the text, you should appreciate & at least consider the testimonies of those who first claimed to be acquainted with both texts to such an extent as to recognize similarities.
All testimony does is to provide us what some people thought - but my experiences is that most of these people were likely unfamiliar with the texts themselves - to the extent that it calls their testimony into question.
Your experience? Who said anything about your experience? The S/R theory is not built on your experience. It is built upon the testimonies of those who were actually there at the time, actually knew Spalding, actually heard him read from his manuscript or read it themselves. What possible basis do you have for suggesting they never read or heard a manuscript they explicity claim to have read or heard read? Many of them go into specific detail as to what they heard, and yet your experience suggests otherwise?
The problem with the notion of a modern finder of ancient records is that it isn't particularly special.
Of course. But we're not merely talking about two generic "finders of ancient records." We're talking about a pre-1816 fiction writer who had been associated with the Book of Mormon as earlier as 1832 writing a fictional account that has a number of parallels to an allegedly true account written by the "translator" of the Book of Mormon in 1838. A rather large difference.
How familiar are you (serious question) with early 19th century literature? How much have you actually read? I have read a great deal, and have a large personal collection.
Good for you. Aside from LDS history, I am not terribly well read when it comes to 19th century material.
So I can suggest with some degree of confidence that these kinds of stories are not all that uncommon - but I suspect that you haven't actually read any beyond the immediate context.
Which I suppose makes you an expert and me a pauper. Nevertheless, despite your superior knowledge, from what you have posted here so far, I'm not buying your argument.
I think this is one of the weaker comparisons since Dale is drawing from the Book of Mormon and not Smith's account. Nevertheless, Dale is going on a hypothesis that links the two to a common author and then offers evidence to support the hypothesis. That is certainly reasonable. And since the wp study supports the connection, it is reasonable to consider all possible parallels. But the susequent parallels are certainly stronger.
I don't think it is reasonable. In fact, it isn't a normal process. There is a term used in literary studies to describe this process. You may have heard it. It is called the Intentional Fallacy.
You know Ben, you can throw out whatever labels you want to throw out, but when you do so you're just blowing off steam. You want textual criticism to start with the texts and that's how it happened--people seeing similarities between two texts--
which you yourself have admitted to seeing as well on this thread. Your only point of contention with them is that--according to you--they just aren't that significant. Since that conclusion is subjective, we may just have to disagree on that.
I do have justification. The parallels which Dale proposes are not exact. They are broad enough that I can probably find tens of thousands of similar statements in contemporary literature.
Be my guest. I challenge you to find a contemporary account that has an equal or greater number of parallels to Smith's discovery narrative. This must be a single source written by one author prior to 1838 and must follow a similar chronology to Smith's narrative. Then once you have that, the author's writings must have been publicly accused of having a connection to the Book of Mormon prior to 1838. Let me know when you have something.
Now the following exchange is really interesting....
Not really. In fact your reasoning here is tautological. The fact that "Both narratives are written within a few years of each other and describe contemporary events" is NOT the reason why "the events described occur within a few years of each other," rather you're simply stating the same thing twice--that the accounts describe contemporary events and are written by relatively contemporary authors. If this were all there were to it then, yes, the notion of contemporary writers writing about their personal experiences is unimpressive. But that is NOT Dale's point. He says it pretty well himself:
I think you miss the point. The point is that Dale's statement doesn't actually make a lot of sense. He says, as you note:
Considering the vast reaches of this planet and the millenia of recorded history, the two discoveries of ancient records happened in practically the same place (in terms of time and space).
Why limit it to this planet? Or even to recorded history? Every coincidence can be described in this way. It is the definition of coincidence. What you are saying is that it seems more likely to be a coincidence than if the two had been a million miles apart. But this doesn't help us determine (a) whether or not it is a coincidence, and (b) whether or not there is plagiarism. Assuming that it is coincidence, the fact that both writers are dealing with near contemporary events also explains why both texts deal with near contemporary events. Since the one comes from the other, Dale's comments really don't have a lot of application to the narrative content beyond the first point - that both are talking about contemporary events. But more than that is simply a way of rephrasing this same point (much as you are suggesting of me).
First you complain that:
Both narratives are written within a few years of each other, and describe contemporary events involving a discovery. This then is the reason why the events described occur within a few years of each other (this, of course, is not surprising, and shouldn't be seen as evidence of borrowing - if on the other hand, both narratives described a particular and not contemporary discovery, we might have something).
When I point out that that is tautological reasoning, you change your criticism to:
The point is that Dale's statement doesn't actually make a lot of sense.
Well it may not make a lot of sense to you. I can't help that, but Dale's statement does in fact make a lot of sense and I demonstrated that it does by stating:
Dale's point is that it is truly remarkable that Spalding is writing a fictional account of the discovery of ancient writings in pre-1816 Ohio and then Smith just happens to produce an allegedly true account of the same type of discovery happening to him in practically the same time in history and practically the same geographical location and in roughly the same chronological sequence.
Even if Smith's story is true (and I don't think it is) it is still a remarkable coincidence. That is Dales's point--not that two contemparary writers chose to write about contemporary events.
I can't help it if you can't or won't see the argument for what it is, but it is spurious to insist that an argument that does in fact "make a lot of sense" doesn't. Obviously you don't agree with the argument. That is fine. Nothing wrong with disagreeing. But to say that it does not make sense doesn't work.
Why limit it to this planet? Or even to recorded history? Every coincidence can be described in this way. It is the definition of coincidence.
I doubt that "every coincidence can be described in this way." But the problem here is that you are simply assuming a priori that it
is a coincidence we are talking about. I am not making that assumption. Certainly I hold open
the possibility, but then I logically ask... what would I need to conclude that it was in fact a couple of remarkable coincidences converging in 1838? With all due respect I would certainly need more than your assumption that it isn't.
Something along the lines of what I challenged you to above would do the trick. No doubt you will say that the bar is set way too high! You couldn't possibly find a work with parallels to Smith's 1838 account that
also happened to be written by a guy who was accused years before of having a connection with the Book of Mormon... could you?!
And
that is the point.
I didn't set the bar... that is simply reality.
"...a pious lie, you know, has a great deal more influence with an ignorant people than a profane one."
- Sidney Rigdon, as quoted in the Quincy Whig, June 8, 1839, vol 2 #6.