Daniel Peterson wrote:I certainly do.
I believe that you fundamentally misunderstand the nature of covenant, in the Latter-day Saint conception of it.
Consider the archetypal covenant between God and human. God, in our view, will never violate his covenant. But the human co-covenanter might well, and often does. In that case, the covenant is null and void:
"I, the Lord, am bound when ye do what I say; but when ye do not what I say, ye have no promise" (Doctrine and Covenants 82:10).
In other words, the unfaithfulness of one party to the covenant nullifies it, even if the other party is perfectly faithful.
Define faithfulness and unfaithfulness
Covenants are not automatically and mechanically binding regardless of the faithfulness and behavior of those who entered into them:
"All covenants, contracts, bonds, obligations, oaths, vows, performances, connections, associations, or expectations, that are not made and entered into and sealed by the Holy Spirit of promise . . . are of no efficacy, virtue, or force in and after the resurrection from the dead" (Doctrine and Covenants 132:7).
All that passage says is that the holy spirit had to seal the people who enter into a covenant, not that the have to be faithful, whatever that means, for it to be valid. I did not read the passage by McConkie that you quoted, but I will if you answer a question for me. Do you accept McConkie's authority as a general rule? If not, why?
All humans are imperfect, of course. No marriage is perfect. But surely there is a point beyond which bad behavior nullifies the marriage covenant. And surely wife-beating and spousal abuse, barring repentance and reform, is a pretty good candidate for doing so.
So if a man beats me and reforms, the covenant is still valid? What if I divorce a man who beats me, and then he reforms his behavior, and then refuses to consent to the sealing being undone? What then?
The idea that a covenant, once entered into, binds both parties no matter how badly one of them behaves and no matter how much one of them may want out of it is thoroughly foreign to me, and to my understanding of temple marriage. Whether or not the sealing has been formally cancelled in such an instance is essentially a matter of bookkeeping.
As other have noted, this does not make sense. Why would the church require women to make petitions if that was the case?
I'm sorry, but all questions muse be submitted in writing.