Tobin wrote:I'll let Marg respond to this, but you do realize that it was Joseph Smith that did the translation so it would have been in his words and a 19th century production as a result. I really don't understand the expectation that it would be anything other than that. The question is only if it was inspired or not and the Book of Mormon directly addresses that issue.Joe Geisner wrote:Marg,
Thank you very much for the thoughtful response. I think you have made an excellent argument against my interpretation.
My major issue with your response is that for me all evidence points to one author of the Book of Mormon, Joseph Smith. I have read most of the arguments for other authors, but none of it sits well with me. As Phil Barlow articulates so well, Smith was already writing in "King James Bible" form by 1828.
I don't think the evidence can replace Smith; for me, the preponderance of the evidence points to Smith.
But the Book of Mormon is not in "his [=Smith's] words", that is, the idiom of 19th century upstate New York.
Instead it is written in a language that I can only describe as a transparently inexpert attempt to imitate the kind of English found in the King James Bible, an attempt made by someone who does not properly understand how the grammar of early 17th century English actually worked.
And as for it being "Joseph Smith that did the translation" - do we have to lay out, yet again, that the earliest accounts of how the text produced do not describe Smith as looking at the Reformed Egyptian text, somehow coming to know its meaning, and hunting for English words to express it, a process that we might have called 'translation', even if we have no idea how Smith came to know that meaning? Instead they describe Smith as having the correct English words revealed to him ready made.
That left no room for Smith's own diction to play a role - and as already pointed out, the text clearly attempts to distance itself from the way Smith and his family actually talked.