Dale at the MAD board had this to say about Joseph Smith's polygamous relationships:
The fact is Joseph Smith was totally celibate with many of his wives during mortality. The claim's of children are unpersuasive at this point. I don't have the link to Van Hale's Mormon Miscellaneous radio show website, but he did a recent radio program that discusses the matter in-depth.
D.&C. 132:61 categorizes as adulturous relations with other men's wives. I found Todd Comptom's In Sacred Lonliness evidence for possible sexuality in these cases flawed. So I happen to view Joseph Smith's polyandrous sealings to be in the realm of agreements to or associations meant for worlds to come. The wording time and for eternity does not indicate that sexuality was present. Todd Comptom admitted himself that in all likelyhood Patty Sessions, and Helen Mar Kimball had a platonic mortal relationship with Joseph Smith.
All the women on the polyandrous list that included 11 women continued living as normal with the legal husbands. It's true that Josephine Fisher claimed her mother on her deathbed had told her she was the daughter of Joseph Smith. But her daughter may have mistook a spiritual adoption claim of the mother as a biological claim. DNA testing has been done to try and verify her claim for several years and it has not been established as a true claim. Ugo Perego told me via e-mail that he works on the eight rumored children of Joseph Smith via plural wives off and on inbetween other projects and wasn't able to publish any more research. Two on the list of eight rumors have been discredited by him as children of Joseph Smith.
According to D.&C. 132:19 couple's can have children in the afterlife. So a platonic mortal relationship would not prevent hypothetically the raising up rightious seed in the afterlife.
I don't see any more than some possible relations between Joseph Smith and the non-polyandrous side of the list of 33. Some relations with some of his plural wives is hardly much running around with 33 women. The lack of children even among rumors suggests to me Joseph Smith was quite moderate in his sexual habit's. He was not the beast towards women some make him out to be.
Why are TBM's so adamant about Joseph Smith NOT having sex with his wives? Brigham had plenty of it.
WK: "Joseph Smith asserted that the Book of Mormon peoples were the original inhabitants of the americas"
Will Schryver: "No, he didn’t." 3/19/08
Still waiting for Will to back this up...
Brigham practiced polygamy as it has been outlined through scripture (regardless of whether or not you disagree with it). Joseph took every opportunity to break the rules of the very same polygamy revelation he introduced.
"I think one of the great mysteries of the gospel is that anyone still believes it." Sethbag, MADB, Feb 22 2008
Trinity wrote:Brigham practiced polygamy as it has been outlined through scripture (regardless of whether or not you disagree with it). Joseph took every opportunity to break the rules of the very same polygamy revelation he introduced.
And that's why they deny it: because it can't be justified scripturally.
Trinity wrote:Brigham practiced polygamy as it has been outlined through scripture (regardless of whether or not you disagree with it). Joseph took every opportunity to break the rules of the very same polygamy revelation he introduced.
And that's why they deny it: because it can't be justified scripturally.
Not sure I'm following. If you're TBM, you believe that Joseph Smith had the revelation in 1831 (or is it 1832?). If he had the revelation, he had the scripture. What did he do that can't be justified scripturally? What rules did he break?
WK: "Joseph Smith asserted that the Book of Mormon peoples were the original inhabitants of the americas"
Will Schryver: "No, he didn’t." 3/19/08
Still waiting for Will to back this up...
Trinity wrote:Brigham practiced polygamy as it has been outlined through scripture (regardless of whether or not you disagree with it). Joseph took every opportunity to break the rules of the very same polygamy revelation he introduced.
And that's why they deny it: because it can't be justified scripturally.
Not sure I'm following. If you're TBM, you believe that Joseph Smith had the revelation in 1831 (or is it 1832?). If he had the revelation, he had the scripture. What did he do that can't be justified scripturally? What rules did he break?
The "revelation" describes what is acceptable: marrying a virgin with the consent of your first wife. No provision is made for marrying women behind your wife's back, particularly those who are already married. In fact, such behavior is described in the revelation as adultery.
Ok. So what's the apologetic here? Was Joseph Smith not practicing REAL polygamy? And since he wasn't practicing REAL polygamy, then he couldn't have sex with the women?
Just trying to follow here.
WK: "Joseph Smith asserted that the Book of Mormon peoples were the original inhabitants of the americas"
Will Schryver: "No, he didn’t." 3/19/08
Still waiting for Will to back this up...
Who Knows wrote:Ok. So what's the apologetic here? Was Joseph Smith not practicing REAL polygamy? And since he wasn't practicing REAL polygamy, then he couldn't have sex with the women?
Just trying to follow here.
No, the apologetic is that he was practicing nonsexual polygamy in establishing "loose dynastic ties" through these marriages (that phrase always makes me chuckle). It's only perverts like us exmos who think sex was involved.