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Men and Sex According to the Old Testament

Posted: Sun May 27, 2007 4:53 am
by _Analytics
I've spent the last few hours reading the Old Testmant, trying to see what an accessible, ancient text says about marriage, sex and monogamy. Here is what I got out of my studies:

1- Men "take" women to be their wives.
2- Men should only take wives who are virgins (Leviticus 21:14)
3- Men are allowed to divorce their wives on grounds of her not being "clean" (Deuteronomy 24:1)
4- If a man has sex with a virgin, he has to mary her (Exodus 22:16, Deuteronomy 22:29)
5- You can't have sex with a woman during her period (Leviticus 15:24, Leviticus 20:18)
6- Men can't have sex with their daughters-in-law, mothers, or step-mothers (Leviticus 20:11-12)
7- Men can't have sex with other men (Leviticus 20:13)
8- You can't mary your mother-in-law (Leviticus 20:14)
9- Men can't have sex with beasts (Leviticus 20:15)
10- Women can't have sex with beasts or make sexual passes at beasts (Leviticus 20:16)
11- Men can't have sex with their sisters, half-sisters, aunts, or sisters-in-law (Leviticus 20:17-21)
12- Men can't have sex with virgins who are betrothed to somebody for marriage (Deuteronomy 22:23-24)
13- A woman can't have sex with another man if she is betrothed to be married (Deuteronomy 22:24-27)
14- Men can't have sex with women who are married to somebody else (Exodus 20:14*, Lev. 20: 10.)
15- A woman can't have sex with another man if she is married (Lev. 20: 10)

Premiminary Observations:

According to the Law of Moses
1- Men are allowed to have as many wives and concubines as they want.
2- Men are allowed to have sex with harlots and single-non-virgins to whom they aren't related.
3- Single, non-betrothed women can have sex with anybody they want--man or woman. The caveat is that losing your virginity makes you ineligible for marriage.
4- Married women can have sex with other women.


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* According to Strong's Number 5003, "adultry" is from the Hebrew verb na'aph, which means
1) to commit adultery
1a) (Qal)
1) to commit adultery
a) usually of man
1a1a1) always with wife of another
b) adultery (of women) (participle)
2) idolatrous worship (figurative)
1b) (Piel)
1) to commit adultery
a) of man
b) adultery (of women) (participle)
2) idolatrous worship (figurative)
Since the 10 Commandments are directed at men (e.g. women are the possession of the neighbor, and it doesn't say that women can't covet the husbands of their neighbors wives), and sice na'aph is usually talking about the adultry of men having sex with women who are married to others, I argue that "Don't Commit Adultry" originally meant "Men: Don't have sex with women who are married to others." This is consistent with Lev 20:10 which explicitly defines adultry as being committed with somebody else's wife.

Posted: Sun May 27, 2007 10:12 am
by _Roger Morrison
Hi Anlalytics, you said:

Since the 10 Commandments are directed at men (e.g. women are the possession of the neighbor, and it doesn't say that women can't covet the husbands of their neighbors wives), and sice na'aph is usually talking about the adultry of men having sex with women who are married to others, I argue that "Don't Commit Adultry" originally meant "Men: Don't have sex with women who are married to others." This is consistent with Lev 20:10 which explicitly defines adultry as being committed with somebody else's wife.



That is my understanding too: "Sexual INTERCOURSE" (According to LDS Officialdom--PENETRATION) with someone other than one's spouse. I remember well GA Ballard's question in a case of a married male involved with a 13 year-old girl (baby-sitting) in masterbation: "Was there penetration?" "No." "Then disfellowship him (Elder's Q Pres) for X-time."

I was very disappointed & dismayed. It seemed to be dismissed so simply. No one outside of the church had any knowledge, or say in the matter. Fortunately child-protection laws have changed... At least in Canada.

However, "Fornication" is another sexual activity, 'however'(?)... Between concenting Adults??? And, understandably, not as consequential from a "sin" or a social perspective, IMSCO. Warm regards, Roger,

Posted: Sun May 27, 2007 2:00 pm
by _truth dancer
Hey Analytics,

Yep.. you pretty much have it! :-)

Also of note....
4- If a man has sex with a virgin, he has to mary her (Exodus 22:16, Deuteronomy 22:29)


This mean that when a virgin girl or woman was raped by a man he must marry her. If I recall correctly there is also a sum the rapist must pay to the victim's father since he would have lost money he would have received if the father was able to collect the usual bride price.

Girls and women at this time in this culture were property of men. The marriage contract was a contract between men with woman as the exchange. All the laws were to protect the men and had nothing whatsoever to do with the safety of, or care for the girl or woman.

The Old Testament laws were put in place so men could be assured they were the fathers of offspring, and so they would receive the proper money for their virgin daughters.

~dancer~

Posted: Sun May 27, 2007 2:28 pm
by _Jersey Girl
I don't know, but you might find this link of interest:

http://www.signaturebookslibrary.org/old/chapter11.htm

Posted: Sun May 27, 2007 2:37 pm
by _Jersey Girl
Levitical Law is fascinating to me. Here's another one for you list:

19:20 And whosoever lieth carnally with a woman, that [is] a bondmaid, betrothed to an husband, and not at all redeemed, nor freedom given her; she shall be scourged; they shall not be put to death, because she was not free.

Note, the male gets off scott free!

Jersey Girl

Posted: Sun May 27, 2007 4:17 pm
by _harmony
And this is what Joseph supposedly restored, because it had been lost. Too bad it wasn't really lost at all. How does anyone go about righting a wrong so ancient?

Posted: Sun May 27, 2007 5:52 pm
by _dartagnan
As far as I can tell, this is pretty much the standard understanding of Jewish Law. But this is only as far as Leviticus and onward is concerned. Genesis is much older, and is influenced by older myths. It establishes quite unambiguously, I think, that God intended a man and a woman to become one. "For this real shall a man leave his mother and father and be one with his wife" (going from memory here). The author of this passage was not concerned with giving men the right to have intercourse with just anyone.

Of course, divinities were married also in Ugarit, Sumaria and Mesopotamia (civilizations that predate Ancient Judaism by a substantial margin) so the institution of marriage on earth as it is later found in the Torah, is just a mimick of a divine concept that was believed and understood many thousands of years ago. But as Analytics said, it was taken and molded to a set of rules and regulations that provided married men with the privilege to have sex with other women.

Posted: Sun May 27, 2007 6:56 pm
by _Jason Bourne
harmony wrote:And this is what Joseph supposedly restored, because it had been lost. Too bad it wasn't really lost at all. How does anyone go about righting a wrong so ancient?


Joseph Smith did not restore levitical law at all. And the plural marriage he instituted was not like the polygamy of Old Testament times either. In the Old Testament it may have been allowed but it was not the crowning ordinance required for exaltation.

Posted: Sun May 27, 2007 7:11 pm
by _Analytics
Jersey Girl wrote:I don't know, but you might find this link of interest:

http://www.signaturebookslibrary.org/old/chapter11.htm


That is interesting. I read the Dinah and Shechem story last night, and through by modern glasses got the impression that Dinah and Shechem were in love--not merely seduction and certainly not rape. The trechery and brutality of Jacob's sons was shocking--this would be great foder for a Godfatehr movie.

Posted: Sun May 27, 2007 7:14 pm
by _Analytics
truth dancer wrote:Hey Analytics,

Yep.. you pretty much have it! :-)

Also of note....
4- If a man has sex with a virgin, he has to mary her (Exodus 22:16, Deuteronomy 22:29)


This mean that when a virgin girl or woman was raped by a man he must marry her. If I recall correctly there is also a sum the rapist must pay to the victim's father since he would have lost money he would have received if the father was able to collect the usual bride price.

Girls and women at this time in this culture were property of men. The marriage contract was a contract between men with woman as the exchange. All the laws were to protect the men and had nothing whatsoever to do with the safety of, or care for the girl or woman.

The Old Testament laws were put in place so men could be assured they were the fathers of offspring, and so they would receive the proper money for their virgin daughters.

~dancer~


Hi Dancer,

Thanks for confirming my impressions! I know you've studied quite a bit about ancient cultures. Is there ancient precident for the idea that marriage entails monogamy and that marriage and monogamy are endorsed by God?