SALT LAKE CITY 6 April 2008 The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints reiterated Sunday that it has no affiliation whatever with a polygamous sect in Texas that has been subject to investigation by state law enforcement officers and child protective services. The Church discontinued polygamy officially in 1890, but more than a century later some news and Internet reports fail to draw clear distinctions between the Church and practicing polygamous sects.
What does the church mean by "discontinued polygamy officially" in 1890? Does it seem to indicate that it had discontinued it UNofficially before that? Is it honest to claim that it discontinued polygamy in 1890 at all considering the levels of leadership involved in post-manifesto sealings?
I would have posted this at MAD, but I got banned for questioning DCP on his statement that Joseph Smith's use of the phrase "I have dreamed a dream" shows the hebraic origin of the Book of Mormon. But I digress . . .