Out of curiosity, why do you think that the KEPA manuscripts are so well punctuated when earlier dictation manuscripts of Smith revelations were not?
A simple matter of who the scribes are. Oliver Cowdery was the scribe involved in the Book of Mormon translation. He was not an experienced scribe, he was hired for the job becase he was someone Smith could trust, not because he was a great scribe. When Smith decided to offer a translation of the Book of Abraham, he learned from his mistakes and decided to hire multiple scribes, those who had the required skills.
Will's punctuation argument is idiotic. He likes to highlight the Phelps portion of Ms2, and thinks this somehow proves a copy, when all it manifests is Phelps' particular style of using semicolons.
Here is page one of the Ms2 manuscript. The darker portion above is Phelps, the rest Parrish.

Oh, and pay no attention to the title at the top of the page. Will's expertise is psycho-history assures us what the title really meant to say is "A Copy of the Translation of the Book of Abraham..."
I do note that there seems to have been a progression from less punctuated to more, and so the KEPA would represent the other extreme. I am not particularly persuaded by this line of argument, but it is something to deal with, and I was curious what you, or maybe Celestial Kingdom, thought of it.
Ms1a and Ms1b were dictated simultaneously. Parrish then produces Ms2 by copying the text from Ms1b. So Ms2 is mostly copied. The fact that it has hardly any errors, s evidence that it is a copy and not a dictated text. Why does Parrish' Ms1b contain so many errors (almost identical to the errors in Ms1a), and yet Parrish's Ms2 has hardly any? The answer is simple. The former was a dictated text and the latter a copy, a cleaner step towards the printers copy.
Ms1a and Ms1b begin with Abr 1:4, so Ms2 begins with the Phelps contribution which involves Abr 1:3, derived from the EAG. Then from Abr 1:4 we see a very smooth product in Parrsh's handwriting.
Keep in mind that Ms2 ends at Abraham 2:18, and that is precisely where the first publication of the Book of Abraham ended, six years later. This flies in the face of Will and Gee's silly clam that the Book of Abraham in its entirety was already produced by 1835. They assert this as fact, because they need it to be fact. These guys do this ALL THE TIME, and they resent it when we prove they are being less than honest.
The evidence undermines their argument. We know they are full of crap because in 1842 Joseph Smth said he had to work on the rest of the translation, in order to produce the next installment.