DiscussMormonism.com

Is there another version of the Book of Mormon in which "And it came to pass" is taken out and it's written in a more flowing english?

Also I'd like to get this straight. Is the Book of Mormon supposed to be a word for word translation from ancient text which had been scratched onto metal plates?

Hi Marg: the one question I would like explained is about the pre earth Jesus and the Book of Mormon's writing about him.

These people were suppose to be Jews but they did not write like Jews as they wrote like Christians. They did not act or write like other Jews at the same time who were in Jerusalem.

Alexander Campbell said the thoughts were from the Calvinist and the Methodist.

I'm not sure what Joseph Smith was seeing in his hat - how he was seeing characters in Reformed Egyptian that meant Jesus Christ - or mercy cannot rob justice etc.

You've got me lost Karl..maybe someone can discuss with you.

Ok I noticed something very very strange. I'm up to page 5..and of course I'm noticing that there are a lot of extra words which if someone was trying to shorten the text which apparently was the reason for using reformed egyptian, then it would make common sense to not use them. Maybe the first page one might make the error of unnecessary words but over time they'd catch on. But that's not what I noticed that's interesting. Up until page 5 no possessives were used. So it would be "tent of my father" rather than the much shorter possessive version of "my father's tent". And if one is trying to condense that's important. Either the ancient language "reformed eygptian" use the possessive (don't know what it's called) or it didn't. But apparently it did.

Up until page 5 CH 3 :5 I notice no possessive until it says "behold thy brothers murmur" to be consistent it should have said "behold the murmur of my brothers". And of course for correct english in the Book of Mormon it should read "behold thy brothers' murmur.

sorry - I will start my own thread.

karl61 wrote:sorry - I will start my own thread.

No need to start your own thread and this thread is unlikely to get much response to my questions anyhow. I just can't answer you, that's all.

Marg: how long do you think "and it came to pass" has been used. I think I saw it used in Maccabees. I also wrote something a while back where it was used in the 16 century when people wrote some Chronicles. Or has that been a phrase used in translation.

No

There is not a version of the Book of Mormon that removes "and it came to pass."

I would not mind seeing one.

I know when I have read it out loud to my children I would edit the phrase out quite often.

marg wrote:Also I'd like to get this straight. Is the Book of Mormon supposed to be a word for word translation from ancient text which had been scratched onto metal plates?

The theory is that it is not a word for word translation. Rather Smith was able to use the best English words that he could come up with, based on his own ability in English.

Also, some believe or argue (Blake Ostler for example) that Smith was able to insert ideas that may have not even been in the original text, but that by inspiration, were important to include in order to clarify religious issues of importance.

marg wrote:Up until page 5 CH 3 :5 I notice no possessive until it says "behold thy brothers murmur" to be consistent it should have said "behold the murmur of my brothers". And of course for correct english in the Book of Mormon it should read "behold thy brothers' murmur.

LOL, marg. Keep it coming!

I wonder which brother had the murmur.