Inconsistencies with D&C 132

[_Yoda]

The main verse in D&C 132 which causes me to question its validity is verse 34.

34God acommanded Abraham, and Sarah gave Hagar to Abraham to wife. And why did she do it? Because this was the law; and from Hagar sprang many people. This, therefore, was fulfilling, among other things, the promises.

Take a look at cross-reference "a":

1Now Sarai Abram’s wife bare him no children: and she had an handmaid, an Egyptian, whose name was Hagar.

2And Sarai said unto Abram, Behold now, the Lord hath restrained me from bearing: I pray thee, go in unto my maid; it may be that I may obtain children by her. And Abram hearkened to the voice of Sarai.

The Lord DID NOT command Abraham to take Hagar to wife. Sarah took it upon herself to give Hagar to Abraham because she was barren.
That was the tradition during that time frame.

Also, the line of the covenant people happened through the lineage of Issac, Sarah's son.

It seemed to me that Sarah was impatient. She did not see things in the Lord's time, but her own. The Lord did, after all, allow Sarah to conceive and deliver a child later in life.

As Jason mentioned on another thread, I just don't see why the Lord would lack clarity on an issue as important as marriage.

This whole section just really sounds like Joseph Smith was "making it up as he went along" to cover his own transgressions.

[_bcspace]

As Jason mentioned on another thread, I just don't see why the Lord would lack clarity on an issue as important as marriage.

Yet D&C 132 provides such clarity. Sarah did not simply decide to give Hagar on her own thereby causing adultery. There was some God given law which she was following and it makes perfect sense when you see in later law (such as the law of Moses) a similar type of command to raise up seed to your (dead) brother. See also Genesis 38.

[_Buffalo]

The main verse in D&C 132 which causes me to question its validity is verse 34.

34God acommanded Abraham, and Sarah gave Hagar to Abraham to wife. And why did she do it? Because this was the law; and from Hagar sprang many people. This, therefore, was fulfilling, among other things, the promises.

Take a look at cross-reference "a":

1Now Sarai Abram’s wife bare him no children: and she had an handmaid, an Egyptian, whose name was Hagar.

2And Sarai said unto Abram, Behold now, the Lord hath restrained me from bearing: I pray thee, go in unto my maid; it may be that I may obtain children by her. And Abram hearkened to the voice of Sarai.

The Lord DID NOT command Abraham to take Hagar to wife. Sarah took it upon herself to give Hagar to Abraham because she was barren.
That was the tradition during that time frame.

Also, the line of the covenant people happened through the lineage of Issac, Sarah's son.

It seemed to me that Sarah was impatient. She did not see things in the Lord's time, but her own. The Lord did, after all, allow Sarah to conceive and deliver a child later in life.

As Jason mentioned on another thread, I just don't see why the Lord would lack clarity on an issue as important as marriage.

This whole section just really sounds like Joseph Smith was "making it up as he went along" to cover his own transgressions.

Yeah, it's pretty obvious Joseph was making it up as he went along - too quickly to edit out these obvious blunders.

And since when did a tradition or one woman's decision become a Law?

[_Yoda]

Sarah did not simply decide to give Hagar on her own thereby causing adultery. There was some God given law which she was following

CFR

[_bcspace]

Sarah did not simply decide to give Hagar on her own thereby causing adultery. There was some God given law which she was following

CFR

D&C 132:34

[_Buffalo]

CFR

D&C 132:34

[_zeezrom]

D&C trumps Old Testament. To resolve any conflict, put the error on the Old Testament.
In other words, there really was a law for this.

[_Joseph]

"an egyptian"?

The seed of Cain or someone else?

[_Darth J]

As Jason mentioned on another thread, I just don't see why the Lord would lack clarity on an issue as important as marriage.

Yet D&C 132 provides such clarity. Sarah did not simply decide to give Hagar on her own thereby causing adultery. There was some God given law which she was following and it makes perfect sense when you see in later law (such as the law of Moses) a similar type of command to raise up seed to your (dead) brother. See also Genesis 38.

Some of our board members may not be familiar with the fallacy of affirming the consequent. It was very considerate for bcspace to show them what it looks like.

[_Dr. Shades]

This whole section just really sounds like Joseph Smith was "making it up as he went along" to cover his own transgressions.

Haven't we been telling you that for years and years?