Re: Critical (but Polite) LDS Discussion (for Pa Pa)
Posted: Fri Feb 04, 2011 3:00 am
GR33N,
Thanks for your response.
Yes, I do believe you have succinctly restated a key portion of my point. If I were to refine it just a bit further I would say: A God imbued with infinite wisdom and infinite intelligence would not command his children to kill in his name. Because man's inability to know for a surety whether his brother has actually been commanded to kill or is simply claiming that he has been commanded to kill, God doing so opens the door to virtually unrestricted killing by those who deceitfully invoke the name of God as an excuse.
In the Judeo-Christian culture, we have been exposed to the concept of God-sanctioned and God-commanded killings for two millennia, so it is difficult to back up and imagine it any other way.
Let me ask you to do the following though-experiment: Excise from the Old and New Testaments any and all references to God commanding a man (or men) to kill other men. Now imagine reading for the very first time the story of Nephi being commanded to kill Laban.
Instead of saying... "hey, that's just what God wanted... who are we to say?" we would more likely say: "This must be incorrect! God would never ask us to do that which is has commanded us not to do". And any despot who sanctioned the killing of his subjects by invoking the name of God would be dethroned. Any priest or prophet who urged his followers to eliminate by sword the ungodly tribe across the river would himself be defrocked.
It is important for me to point out that my objection is not to having God, Himself, personally kill the offending person, whether with lighting, whirlwinds of fire, aneurisms or cardiac arrest, whatever. So my question, in reference to 1 Nephi 4:13 is "why did the Lord not perform the deed himself"? He could look into Nephi's heart and know of his faith or lack thereof, right? This test of 'doing the dirty work' seems like something fit for a mobster who needs to know, absolutely know, that their made man is truly on their side. For a God, it seems quite unbecoming.
If we found these words in the first few hundred pages of the Book of Mormon, I probably wouldn't be able to say this, but why does this sound so much like Moses' eye-for-an-eye jurisprudence, which is said to have been made obsolete with the atonement of Christ? What happened 'to turn the other cheek'?
That little bit there at the end caught my eye. Permit me to ask you this: In considering all of scripture, including the Book of Mormon and D&C, including all history which has happened since the D&C was last given a new revelation, what might you say was the most recent example of a person being killed by righteous command from God? Since the story of Nephi and Laban dates to around 600 BC, are there more recent examples? It might be that sanctioned killing has stopped, but I am wondering if you (or anyone else) can think of a more recent example.
Thanks again, GR33N, for your thoughtful reply to my musings.
Thanks for your response.
GR33N wrote:beefcalf,
I think I did understand your central point but I probably addressed it poorly.
To restate it simply. How can God command murder when murder is against God's law for us? Further how are we to discern between those who claim to murder in the name of God whether they were truly acting at God's direction or not?
Yes, I do believe you have succinctly restated a key portion of my point. If I were to refine it just a bit further I would say: A God imbued with infinite wisdom and infinite intelligence would not command his children to kill in his name. Because man's inability to know for a surety whether his brother has actually been commanded to kill or is simply claiming that he has been commanded to kill, God doing so opens the door to virtually unrestricted killing by those who deceitfully invoke the name of God as an excuse.
In the Judeo-Christian culture, we have been exposed to the concept of God-sanctioned and God-commanded killings for two millennia, so it is difficult to back up and imagine it any other way.
Let me ask you to do the following though-experiment: Excise from the Old and New Testaments any and all references to God commanding a man (or men) to kill other men. Now imagine reading for the very first time the story of Nephi being commanded to kill Laban.
Instead of saying... "hey, that's just what God wanted... who are we to say?" we would more likely say: "This must be incorrect! God would never ask us to do that which is has commanded us not to do". And any despot who sanctioned the killing of his subjects by invoking the name of God would be dethroned. Any priest or prophet who urged his followers to eliminate by sword the ungodly tribe across the river would himself be defrocked.
Again I think the scriptures I quoted answer these questions although in re-reading my post I quoted the wrong verse in Nephi.
So I'll just copy and paste the verses here:
Nephi, 4:13 "Behold the Lord slayeth the wicked to bring forth his righteous purposes."
It is important for me to point out that my objection is not to having God, Himself, personally kill the offending person, whether with lighting, whirlwinds of fire, aneurisms or cardiac arrest, whatever. So my question, in reference to 1 Nephi 4:13 is "why did the Lord not perform the deed himself"? He could look into Nephi's heart and know of his faith or lack thereof, right? This test of 'doing the dirty work' seems like something fit for a mobster who needs to know, absolutely know, that their made man is truly on their side. For a God, it seems quite unbecoming.
D&C 98:31 Nevertheless, thine enemy is in thine hands; and if thou rewardest him according to his works thou art justified; if he has sought thy life, and thy life is endangered by him, thine enemy is in thine hands and thou art justified. You may also want to read vs 23-32 of D&C 98.
If we found these words in the first few hundred pages of the Book of Mormon, I probably wouldn't be able to say this, but why does this sound so much like Moses' eye-for-an-eye jurisprudence, which is said to have been made obsolete with the atonement of Christ? What happened 'to turn the other cheek'?
So how can God command murder? Lets look at another verse in D&C 64:10. I, the Lord, will forgive whom I will forgive, but of you it is required to forgive all men.
My personal interpretation this: God gives his children laws to live by ie: 10 commandments. Those laws are not self imposed by God in every instance. I believe God does have laws that do apply to Him but they are higher laws that in this case supersedes.
As a society we should hold anyone who commits murder accountable for that crime as the justice system dictates. If they claim that God told them to commit the crime then God will judge them accordingly at judgement day or protect them from human justice as in Nephi's case. God doesn't expect us to differentiate between those who think they kill for him and those who actually do. Let's let God do the distinguishing either in this life or the next one.
That little bit there at the end caught my eye. Permit me to ask you this: In considering all of scripture, including the Book of Mormon and D&C, including all history which has happened since the D&C was last given a new revelation, what might you say was the most recent example of a person being killed by righteous command from God? Since the story of Nephi and Laban dates to around 600 BC, are there more recent examples? It might be that sanctioned killing has stopped, but I am wondering if you (or anyone else) can think of a more recent example.
Thanks again, GR33N, for your thoughtful reply to my musings.