May be old question in general, but
Posted: Sat Mar 05, 2011 8:20 pm
I can't anything addressing my specific question through the search engine here, so I'll just ask. And I'm not looking to denigrate any individual here, or defame the church organization, or anything like that. Some things do, however, get very very confusing & I'd feel better about this item if I could have it cleared up for me.
I know there are many postings about how to know if a statement by a general authority, even a prophet, is actually church doctrine. Some say a statement isn't official doctrine unless approved by the entire First Presidency. Others say anything stated in General Conference or printed in church magazines should be considered official doctrine.
When Pres Kimball (and I loved that guy) announced the revelation on giving all worthy males the Priesthood, it was said (or maybe he said) that any attempts to explain the reasons behind the previous restrictions were obviously opinions and speculations.
If a current president and prophet of the church is asked point blank what the official position of the church is on...any topic, and that president answers the question, I would not blame the members of the church for accepting that answer as official church doctrine. I would find it difficult, if not impossible, to explain it any other way. But that is not the case.
I'm sure this has been brought up before, also, but I don't know the explanation for it. When the very famous Horace Greeley interviewed Brigham Young and asked for the church's position on slavery and Brigham Young answered quite directly and in some detail, church members, and the world, from then on - until 1978 - would have no reason to believe Young's statements were only opinion. He gave his answer as "church position." The Greeley series of which that interview was part, was published all over the country and the world. If Brigham Young was misquoted, he surely would have said so loudly and plainly, and seen to it that his objections were in print.
Question(s) 1 - the obvious: how could that happen? What would keep it from happening again today? has it happened at other times on other topics & we just haven't found out about it yet? How can anyone in the church say that if we pray about something the prophet says and get a different answer - we are wrong, not him, when Young WAS wrong and Kimball's revelation proves it? Why would God allow such a heinous and harmful & seemingly very official statement go unquestioned, hurting the church for over 100 years?
Question 2 - Considering Joseph Smiths last statements related to slavery, his abolitionist position for his presidential run, his detailed comments on how to end slavery in the US, etc, WHY did Brigham Young allow slavery in Utah right up until the Emancipation Proclamation? Of course, since he evidently believed & taught all the trash talk he gave Horace Greeley, he'd have no personal problem with slavery (what a sentence - repulsive sentence), but WHY didn't Joseph Smith's position guide Brigham Young's? Joseph Smith is the HEAD of THIS DISPENSATION - so those of his teachings that are basic & fundamental (not time-bound or tied to a specific circumstance at a specific time) shouldn't get dismissed, ignored, or overruled by later prophets in this dispensation.
This whole issue concerns real basics about LDS life - how prophets give out actual official doctrine, how much people are expected to accept or reject flat out statements by the prophet, how reliable are statements, current & past, even by the prophet even when in response to a question about "church positions" on specific huge issues?
Do we simply dismiss all of Young's statements because his extreme opinionated stance makes it all unreliable? If we only dismiss what he said that goes against other definite doctrinal statements, that still allows for the entire church accepting his view of blacks for over 100 years.
Please, someone explain this one to me. Thank you. I have no idea how to explain it to non-LDS who ask, much less to myself. Please...
I know there are many postings about how to know if a statement by a general authority, even a prophet, is actually church doctrine. Some say a statement isn't official doctrine unless approved by the entire First Presidency. Others say anything stated in General Conference or printed in church magazines should be considered official doctrine.
When Pres Kimball (and I loved that guy) announced the revelation on giving all worthy males the Priesthood, it was said (or maybe he said) that any attempts to explain the reasons behind the previous restrictions were obviously opinions and speculations.
If a current president and prophet of the church is asked point blank what the official position of the church is on...any topic, and that president answers the question, I would not blame the members of the church for accepting that answer as official church doctrine. I would find it difficult, if not impossible, to explain it any other way. But that is not the case.
I'm sure this has been brought up before, also, but I don't know the explanation for it. When the very famous Horace Greeley interviewed Brigham Young and asked for the church's position on slavery and Brigham Young answered quite directly and in some detail, church members, and the world, from then on - until 1978 - would have no reason to believe Young's statements were only opinion. He gave his answer as "church position." The Greeley series of which that interview was part, was published all over the country and the world. If Brigham Young was misquoted, he surely would have said so loudly and plainly, and seen to it that his objections were in print.
Question(s) 1 - the obvious: how could that happen? What would keep it from happening again today? has it happened at other times on other topics & we just haven't found out about it yet? How can anyone in the church say that if we pray about something the prophet says and get a different answer - we are wrong, not him, when Young WAS wrong and Kimball's revelation proves it? Why would God allow such a heinous and harmful & seemingly very official statement go unquestioned, hurting the church for over 100 years?
Question 2 - Considering Joseph Smiths last statements related to slavery, his abolitionist position for his presidential run, his detailed comments on how to end slavery in the US, etc, WHY did Brigham Young allow slavery in Utah right up until the Emancipation Proclamation? Of course, since he evidently believed & taught all the trash talk he gave Horace Greeley, he'd have no personal problem with slavery (what a sentence - repulsive sentence), but WHY didn't Joseph Smith's position guide Brigham Young's? Joseph Smith is the HEAD of THIS DISPENSATION - so those of his teachings that are basic & fundamental (not time-bound or tied to a specific circumstance at a specific time) shouldn't get dismissed, ignored, or overruled by later prophets in this dispensation.
This whole issue concerns real basics about LDS life - how prophets give out actual official doctrine, how much people are expected to accept or reject flat out statements by the prophet, how reliable are statements, current & past, even by the prophet even when in response to a question about "church positions" on specific huge issues?
Do we simply dismiss all of Young's statements because his extreme opinionated stance makes it all unreliable? If we only dismiss what he said that goes against other definite doctrinal statements, that still allows for the entire church accepting his view of blacks for over 100 years.
Please, someone explain this one to me. Thank you. I have no idea how to explain it to non-LDS who ask, much less to myself. Please...