How can this study be true?
Posted: Wed Oct 03, 2012 7:20 am
https://docs.google.com/viewer?a=v&q=ca ... J0o07pwvEg
I mean, isn't this a problem only with men?
I mean, isn't this a problem only with men?
Although some variation in the reported prevalence rates of pornography consumption is evident across studies, comparable international studies have, with few exceptions (e.g., Pan, 1993), reported consumption rates in the range of 86–98% amongst men and 54–85% amongst women (Demar´ , Lips, & Briere, 1993; Gunther, 1995; Hammar´& Johansson, 2001; Janghorbani et al., 2003; Li & Michael, 1996; Perse, 1994; Rogala & Tyd´ n, 2003; Tyden, Olsson, & Haggstrom-Nordin, 2001).
When comparing prevalence rates it is however important to bear in mind that important factors such as the definition of sexual media/pornography, subject sample, and methodology often differ from study to study. Evidently, these differing factors have an effect on both the overall prevalence rates and how well these reflect the general population.
In the current study, for example, a rather “strict” definition of pornography was employed. Sexual materials containing only nudity, such as those seen in Playboy or Penthouse, were not considered pornography. Applying this definition would most likely reduce gender differences because it eliminates an important form of sexual material to
which men expose themselves more than women.