The Indo-European Background of Deseret
Posted: Sat Jun 13, 2015 1:59 am
First, the prolegomena.
The investigations of Zeezrom into Jaredite migration routes and a possible link with Mycenaean Greece has reminded me that the old problem of the etymology of a known Jaredite word is as yet (but not for much longer, if the LORD will be so kind) unsolved: deseret. I believe the Greek connection might provide the key.
Before using that key to unlock the mystery, though, we must understand why the prevailing theories are so profoundly unsatisfying. There are, to my knowledge, two basic theories, equally misguided, equally violating constraints of place and time, and above all equally inelegant.
The one with the widest currency today is that popularized by Professor Nibley, although he was not its originator. According to this etymology, deseret is from the Egyptian dšrt. This is the word for the red crown worn by the kings of Lower Egypt, but, as Nibley noticed that another scholar pointed out (Alan Gardiner), the ideogram dšrt is occasionally used in place of the ideogram for honeybee, thus, there is a connection between the honeybee (in Egyptian, bit) and Jareditish deseret. As they say in the dialect of Staten Island: bada bing, bada boom.
In the words of a more recent commentator, Nibley's articulation of this etymology was, "not only very subtle but, quite frankly, brilliant." I would say that it is not only utterly convoluted and forced, but, quite frankly, nonsense. I am puzzled why this commentator sees it as brilliant, since it solves nothing and leads only to a series of absurdities. Since when did absurdity become a marker of brilliance?
This etymology compels us to imagine a scenario in which steppe dwellers (as Nibley elsewhere argued) and nomads in exile (as the text of Ether confirms) somehow did not have a word for honeybee. Given the fact that the text tells us that early Jaredites were such devoted beekeepers that they not only traveled with their bees but that they even packed their apiaries into barges, we can assume that beekeeping had cultural and economic importance. The culture that travels in proto-submarines with bees is not a culture that takes their beekeeping lightly. Nor had that culture encountered any Egyptians yet (in fact, nowhere in the text are they said to have encountered any Egyptians at all); they were already beekeepers before their out-migration post Babel. Yet, for the Nibley theory to work, the early beekeeping Jaredites must have needed to borrow the word for honeybee. Cross-linguistically, it is extremely unusual for language groups to borrow words for things and concepts they already have, unless they are in extremely close and prolonged contact with other speakers of other language groups. If so, we should expect some record of that either in the text of Ether or in Egyptian records. Since there is no such evidence anywhere, we must assume this word was borrowed, in which case we are faced with an absurd scenario in which Jaredite beekeepers had no word for the insect they so devotedly tended, despite its centrality to early Jaredite culture and economy.
Another absurdity, pointed out by a recent commentator as a preface to his own etymology (discussed below), is that the Nibley etymology is contradictory: whenever the Egyptian ideogram for the red crown does replace that of honeybee, it would no longer be pronounced as dšrt but instead as bit. So, we have to imagine further that these Jaredite beekeepers, in addition to having no word for "bee" until living in close proximity with Egyptians, were (unlike the mass of Egyptians) so learned in hieroglyphic word play that, instead of borrowing the word for bee (bit), they borrowed a word for "red crown of Lower Egypt" because its ideogram is on rare occasions used in place of the ideogram for bee. So, these Jaredite beekeepers had no word for the bees they kept until they lived among Egyptians and learned hieroglyphic, but they for some reason did not borrow the word for bee; instead they borrowed the word represented by an ideogram (dšrt) that sometimes represents the bee, although when it does so it is pronounced bit, which pronunciation means "bee." They were not beekeepers, therefore, but red-crown-of-lower-Egypt-keepers. In the parlance of our times: WTF?
Nibley's commentator, as I mentioned, proposed his own etymology in attempt to overcome some of this absurdity, but he really runs into similar problems. His solution is to look at the Hebrew word for bee (dəḇôrāh), whose underlying consonantal skeleton (DBRT) is very close to that presumed in deseret (DSRT), if both are Semitic. There are two problems. First, as the author of this etymology himself honestly admits, it is extremely difficult to account for the phonological disparity between B and S (the old BS problem, a perennial obstacle for apologists). He proposes some speculative solutions, and he deserves credit for his honesty, but we can't take this etymology on vague possibility, picking from a menu of linguistic entrées simply on gut feeling. One cannot be a cafeteria historical linguist.
The other problem is the same one facing the Nibley solution: why would beekeepers need to borrow the word for bee? It's absurd. It is also absurd to suggest that they would borrow it from Hebrew, the first attestation of which is at least a millennium or more after the early Jaredite migrations, when the Jaredite Res Gestae say that, before their barge-caravan across the hollow back of the glistening sea, "they did also carry with them deseret, which, by interpretation, is a honey bee; and thus they did carry with them swarms of bees" (Ether 2:30). Surely, they had a word for bee at that point, and surely they did not get that word from a language which did not yet exist. It's one thing to turn stones into light bulbs in vacuum-sealed barges; it's another thing to travel through time to borrow a word for those swarmy things that are so central to your culture and economy in the present, so central that you're willing to live for months on end with those stinging swarmy things (for which you have no word) in a vacuum-sealed, stone-lit barge.
One solution, implicit in the assumption that Jaredite was Semitic, is that both DSRT and DBRT are reflexes of the same proto-Semitic root. If that is so, however, we run into another absurdity. For the most phonologically conservative of all Semitic languages, Arabic, confirms that the B is the earlier consonant (Arabic dibr, "swarm"). It is significant that this consonant is also in Northwest Semitic languages like Hebrew, Phoenecian (dobrot), and Aramaic (in all dialects where this word is found, and across the entire history of that language and its various dialects), for it is unlikely that all of these innovated from an original S in common with each other. No other Semitic language—or in fact any language that I can discover—has such a drastic phonological shift. It's not impossible; but it is unparalleled. Thus, Jareditish was the likely phonological innovator. If so, we not only face the BS problem, but now we have an added problem: if Jareditish also stems from proto-Semitic stock, it is now one of the earliest attested such languages (perhaps the earliest) and the closest chronologically to proto-Semitic, and at the same time it would be the most distant phonologically from proto-Semitic! That is absurd.
Chronology and culture are the stumbling blocks to both theories, and both theories address these problems by ignoring them. In that void we find only absurdities. These absurdities arise because of an unquestioned assumption that the language of the Jaredites must have been Afro-asiatic, either Egyptian or Semitic. What indication is there in the text? None whatsoever. The only basis for this assumption is a misreading of the relationship between Genesis and Ether 1:3-6, a misreading that goes back to Sjodhal's commentary.
Genesis 10 gives the genealogies of Noah's sons, Shem, Ham, and Japheth. The Semites, obviously, descend from Shem. In genealogizing Shem, the Bible lists several descendants, among whom are Peleg and Joktan, the sons of Eber (whence the word "Hebrew"). It was in the days of Peleg and Joktan that the earth was divided, i.e. the events of Babel resulted in one group remaining in the Old World and the other going to the New—the Jaredites. Moreover, one of Joktan's sons was named Jerah, and that last consonant in Hebrew (ḥ) could easily be a mistake for "d"; the difference is a single stroke in the Hebrew script (ח vs. ד), so Jerah might actually be Jared. All of this is within the genealogy of Shem, and thus the Jaredites are assumed to be Semites and to have spoken a language related to Hebrew.
At Ether 1:3-6, however, Moroni is explicit that he is picking up right at the point where the biblical account finishes the Babel story. The key to understanding this, therefore, is not Genesis 10 but Genesis 11. Genesis 11:1-9 recounts the fall of Babel, then at v. 10 begins a doublet of the genealogy of Shem, the son of Noah. What of the other sons? We never hear of them again in the Bible. But remember that Moroni is intentionally going to recount what is not given in the Bible. That is why, in Ether 1, he picks up right at the end of the Babel story, e.g. he picks up right after Genesis 11:9. That means that what he has must be different from Genesis 11:10 ff.—different from the genealogy of Shem, in other words. The Semitic line is not his concern, so Jaredites were not Semitic. And since it is unlikely that any descendants of Ham, who were forbidden the priesthood, would have been allowed to experience the pre-mortal Christ's presence, we can assume he is not writing about the Hamitic line. We are left with only one option: Moroni's redaction of the Jaredite Res Gestae is concerned with the descendants of Japheth.
Now, Japeth (Heb. Yapet) is the equivalent of the Greek Iapetos, an equivalence made as early as Josephus. His genealogy is given at Genesis 10:2-5, where among his sons are listed Tarshish and Javan. Tarshish is the eponymous ancestor of Tartessos, a harbor city in western Spain known to Herodotus (1.163 and 4.152) and Isaiah (2:16; incidentally, a verse that poses problems for the Book of Mormon, as we have elsewhere hashed out on this board). Like the Jaredites, the origins of the Tartessians are a mystery, as is the affiliation of their language, which survives in a few inscriptions from Spain, but the point here is that Japeth's line is firmly north and western in its geography. That is not the geography of Semitic speakers but rather of Indo-European language groups.
Japeth's son Javan is more significant, for "Javan" (Heb. Yāwān) is simply the standard Hebrew word for "Ionian," e.g. the Greeks of the Western part of Anatolia in particular but for Semitic speakers it was the term for Greeks in general (cf. Arabic yunān) and even Sanskrit (Yuvan). The Ionians (Homeric Grosskreutz. Iaones, Linear B i-ja-wo-ne) were thus descendants of Japeth, and since the Jaredites were also likely descendants of Japeth, as I have argued here, then a genealogical and linguistic connection between the Ionian Greeks and the Jaredites seems most likely.
Zeezrom's archaeological arguments only reinforce that probability. If we want to understand the etymology of the Jareditish word deseret, the best data for a historical linguistic analysis is not with Semitic or Egyptian data but with Greek and the language group most closely related to Greek, Indo-Iranian. In my next post on this topic, I will offer such an approach, adducing Greek, Avestan, and other Indo-European languages to propose an etymology of deseret that will be as elegant as it is coherent. It won't face the BS problem that plagues other apologetic etymologies, and it will be totally not absurd at all.
The investigations of Zeezrom into Jaredite migration routes and a possible link with Mycenaean Greece has reminded me that the old problem of the etymology of a known Jaredite word is as yet (but not for much longer, if the LORD will be so kind) unsolved: deseret. I believe the Greek connection might provide the key.
Before using that key to unlock the mystery, though, we must understand why the prevailing theories are so profoundly unsatisfying. There are, to my knowledge, two basic theories, equally misguided, equally violating constraints of place and time, and above all equally inelegant.
The one with the widest currency today is that popularized by Professor Nibley, although he was not its originator. According to this etymology, deseret is from the Egyptian dšrt. This is the word for the red crown worn by the kings of Lower Egypt, but, as Nibley noticed that another scholar pointed out (Alan Gardiner), the ideogram dšrt is occasionally used in place of the ideogram for honeybee, thus, there is a connection between the honeybee (in Egyptian, bit) and Jareditish deseret. As they say in the dialect of Staten Island: bada bing, bada boom.
In the words of a more recent commentator, Nibley's articulation of this etymology was, "not only very subtle but, quite frankly, brilliant." I would say that it is not only utterly convoluted and forced, but, quite frankly, nonsense. I am puzzled why this commentator sees it as brilliant, since it solves nothing and leads only to a series of absurdities. Since when did absurdity become a marker of brilliance?
This etymology compels us to imagine a scenario in which steppe dwellers (as Nibley elsewhere argued) and nomads in exile (as the text of Ether confirms) somehow did not have a word for honeybee. Given the fact that the text tells us that early Jaredites were such devoted beekeepers that they not only traveled with their bees but that they even packed their apiaries into barges, we can assume that beekeeping had cultural and economic importance. The culture that travels in proto-submarines with bees is not a culture that takes their beekeeping lightly. Nor had that culture encountered any Egyptians yet (in fact, nowhere in the text are they said to have encountered any Egyptians at all); they were already beekeepers before their out-migration post Babel. Yet, for the Nibley theory to work, the early beekeeping Jaredites must have needed to borrow the word for honeybee. Cross-linguistically, it is extremely unusual for language groups to borrow words for things and concepts they already have, unless they are in extremely close and prolonged contact with other speakers of other language groups. If so, we should expect some record of that either in the text of Ether or in Egyptian records. Since there is no such evidence anywhere, we must assume this word was borrowed, in which case we are faced with an absurd scenario in which Jaredite beekeepers had no word for the insect they so devotedly tended, despite its centrality to early Jaredite culture and economy.
Another absurdity, pointed out by a recent commentator as a preface to his own etymology (discussed below), is that the Nibley etymology is contradictory: whenever the Egyptian ideogram for the red crown does replace that of honeybee, it would no longer be pronounced as dšrt but instead as bit. So, we have to imagine further that these Jaredite beekeepers, in addition to having no word for "bee" until living in close proximity with Egyptians, were (unlike the mass of Egyptians) so learned in hieroglyphic word play that, instead of borrowing the word for bee (bit), they borrowed a word for "red crown of Lower Egypt" because its ideogram is on rare occasions used in place of the ideogram for bee. So, these Jaredite beekeepers had no word for the bees they kept until they lived among Egyptians and learned hieroglyphic, but they for some reason did not borrow the word for bee; instead they borrowed the word represented by an ideogram (dšrt) that sometimes represents the bee, although when it does so it is pronounced bit, which pronunciation means "bee." They were not beekeepers, therefore, but red-crown-of-lower-Egypt-keepers. In the parlance of our times: WTF?
Nibley's commentator, as I mentioned, proposed his own etymology in attempt to overcome some of this absurdity, but he really runs into similar problems. His solution is to look at the Hebrew word for bee (dəḇôrāh), whose underlying consonantal skeleton (DBRT) is very close to that presumed in deseret (DSRT), if both are Semitic. There are two problems. First, as the author of this etymology himself honestly admits, it is extremely difficult to account for the phonological disparity between B and S (the old BS problem, a perennial obstacle for apologists). He proposes some speculative solutions, and he deserves credit for his honesty, but we can't take this etymology on vague possibility, picking from a menu of linguistic entrées simply on gut feeling. One cannot be a cafeteria historical linguist.
The other problem is the same one facing the Nibley solution: why would beekeepers need to borrow the word for bee? It's absurd. It is also absurd to suggest that they would borrow it from Hebrew, the first attestation of which is at least a millennium or more after the early Jaredite migrations, when the Jaredite Res Gestae say that, before their barge-caravan across the hollow back of the glistening sea, "they did also carry with them deseret, which, by interpretation, is a honey bee; and thus they did carry with them swarms of bees" (Ether 2:30). Surely, they had a word for bee at that point, and surely they did not get that word from a language which did not yet exist. It's one thing to turn stones into light bulbs in vacuum-sealed barges; it's another thing to travel through time to borrow a word for those swarmy things that are so central to your culture and economy in the present, so central that you're willing to live for months on end with those stinging swarmy things (for which you have no word) in a vacuum-sealed, stone-lit barge.
One solution, implicit in the assumption that Jaredite was Semitic, is that both DSRT and DBRT are reflexes of the same proto-Semitic root. If that is so, however, we run into another absurdity. For the most phonologically conservative of all Semitic languages, Arabic, confirms that the B is the earlier consonant (Arabic dibr, "swarm"). It is significant that this consonant is also in Northwest Semitic languages like Hebrew, Phoenecian (dobrot), and Aramaic (in all dialects where this word is found, and across the entire history of that language and its various dialects), for it is unlikely that all of these innovated from an original S in common with each other. No other Semitic language—or in fact any language that I can discover—has such a drastic phonological shift. It's not impossible; but it is unparalleled. Thus, Jareditish was the likely phonological innovator. If so, we not only face the BS problem, but now we have an added problem: if Jareditish also stems from proto-Semitic stock, it is now one of the earliest attested such languages (perhaps the earliest) and the closest chronologically to proto-Semitic, and at the same time it would be the most distant phonologically from proto-Semitic! That is absurd.
Chronology and culture are the stumbling blocks to both theories, and both theories address these problems by ignoring them. In that void we find only absurdities. These absurdities arise because of an unquestioned assumption that the language of the Jaredites must have been Afro-asiatic, either Egyptian or Semitic. What indication is there in the text? None whatsoever. The only basis for this assumption is a misreading of the relationship between Genesis and Ether 1:3-6, a misreading that goes back to Sjodhal's commentary.
Genesis 10 gives the genealogies of Noah's sons, Shem, Ham, and Japheth. The Semites, obviously, descend from Shem. In genealogizing Shem, the Bible lists several descendants, among whom are Peleg and Joktan, the sons of Eber (whence the word "Hebrew"). It was in the days of Peleg and Joktan that the earth was divided, i.e. the events of Babel resulted in one group remaining in the Old World and the other going to the New—the Jaredites. Moreover, one of Joktan's sons was named Jerah, and that last consonant in Hebrew (ḥ) could easily be a mistake for "d"; the difference is a single stroke in the Hebrew script (ח vs. ד), so Jerah might actually be Jared. All of this is within the genealogy of Shem, and thus the Jaredites are assumed to be Semites and to have spoken a language related to Hebrew.
At Ether 1:3-6, however, Moroni is explicit that he is picking up right at the point where the biblical account finishes the Babel story. The key to understanding this, therefore, is not Genesis 10 but Genesis 11. Genesis 11:1-9 recounts the fall of Babel, then at v. 10 begins a doublet of the genealogy of Shem, the son of Noah. What of the other sons? We never hear of them again in the Bible. But remember that Moroni is intentionally going to recount what is not given in the Bible. That is why, in Ether 1, he picks up right at the end of the Babel story, e.g. he picks up right after Genesis 11:9. That means that what he has must be different from Genesis 11:10 ff.—different from the genealogy of Shem, in other words. The Semitic line is not his concern, so Jaredites were not Semitic. And since it is unlikely that any descendants of Ham, who were forbidden the priesthood, would have been allowed to experience the pre-mortal Christ's presence, we can assume he is not writing about the Hamitic line. We are left with only one option: Moroni's redaction of the Jaredite Res Gestae is concerned with the descendants of Japheth.
Now, Japeth (Heb. Yapet) is the equivalent of the Greek Iapetos, an equivalence made as early as Josephus. His genealogy is given at Genesis 10:2-5, where among his sons are listed Tarshish and Javan. Tarshish is the eponymous ancestor of Tartessos, a harbor city in western Spain known to Herodotus (1.163 and 4.152) and Isaiah (2:16; incidentally, a verse that poses problems for the Book of Mormon, as we have elsewhere hashed out on this board). Like the Jaredites, the origins of the Tartessians are a mystery, as is the affiliation of their language, which survives in a few inscriptions from Spain, but the point here is that Japeth's line is firmly north and western in its geography. That is not the geography of Semitic speakers but rather of Indo-European language groups.
Japeth's son Javan is more significant, for "Javan" (Heb. Yāwān) is simply the standard Hebrew word for "Ionian," e.g. the Greeks of the Western part of Anatolia in particular but for Semitic speakers it was the term for Greeks in general (cf. Arabic yunān) and even Sanskrit (Yuvan). The Ionians (Homeric Grosskreutz. Iaones, Linear B i-ja-wo-ne) were thus descendants of Japeth, and since the Jaredites were also likely descendants of Japeth, as I have argued here, then a genealogical and linguistic connection between the Ionian Greeks and the Jaredites seems most likely.
Zeezrom's archaeological arguments only reinforce that probability. If we want to understand the etymology of the Jareditish word deseret, the best data for a historical linguistic analysis is not with Semitic or Egyptian data but with Greek and the language group most closely related to Greek, Indo-Iranian. In my next post on this topic, I will offer such an approach, adducing Greek, Avestan, and other Indo-European languages to propose an etymology of deseret that will be as elegant as it is coherent. It won't face the BS problem that plagues other apologetic etymologies, and it will be totally not absurd at all.