jfro18 wrote:
Joseph didn't have a KJV Bible yet had word-for-word KJV passages in the Book of Mormon, even though he was translating off golden plates written before the KJV Bible was created.
I am up in the air as to what the role of an actual printed copy of the KJV may or may not have played in the Book of Mormon. Yes, I did post the piece from FAIR. The witness statements seem to show that the KJV wasn't 'on hand' during the day to day translation sessions. I am not convinced, however, that Joseph didn't have access to a Bible before and during the translation period of his life. Obviously the Smith family had access to a Bible during Joseph's formative years.
jfro18 wrote:Joseph used Deutero-Isaiah passages in the Book of Mormon that were written before Lehi left, but it's not a problem because maybe the D-I passages were actually written at the correct time but altered later and so Joseph's brain somehow knew that it would still make sense.
Clark Goble is a fairly well respected LDS thinker. As is Kevin Christensen. They have written in regards to the so called Deutero-Isaiah problem.
https://www.timesandseasons.org/harchiv ... index.htmlhttps://publications.mi.byu.edu/fullscr ... 94&index=7There are some reasonable alternatives other than the 'smoking gun' view.
jfro18 wrote:Joseph didn't use the gold plates at all but a stone in a hat, which would be impossible for any of the loose translation stuff to co-exist, but that's OK because a committee actually prepped this stuff so even though a lot of the 19th century stuff is directly from Joseph, it was approved and actually co-opted by a heavenly committee.
I'm simply bringing up an "expansion of the text' personal view of how we might look a bit more creatively in regards to the Book of Mormon translation. I'm not in any way saying that my meanderings on this thread are 'set in stone', they are merely that...meanderings and thoughts on how the Book of Mormon translation/transliteration may have occurred.
I am presenting my thoughts with the presupposition that God was involved in that process. I don't think it is unreasonable...operating under this assumption...to think that others were involved in that process also...i.e. translation committee. Now, if you take God out of the picture, then yes, you can likewise subscribe to the view that others were involved in the process. That element doesn't change.
Regards,
MG