A knockoff nothing line is not an explanation. AFter spending paragraphs in not addressing the issue at all, he says well, maybe Joseph Smith could have known that the variant translations were around.
What is a knockoff nothing line? And what are you talking about with the variant translations? Wright explicitly addresses the exact wording that is in the Book of Mormon, and gives an explanation, however unsatisfactory to you, as to how this may have occured.
Listen up. This does not address the issue! Let me explain it.
The passage in the Book of Mormon Isaiah has 3 ideas-- (1)all the ships at sea, (2)the Ships of Tarshish and (3)the pleasant or fine ships. All of them agree on the (3). But each of the other 2 has only 1 of the ideas that the Book of Mormon Isaiah has.
Actually, the KJV has two of them, and the third is available in biblical commentary, that you describe as esoteric. Please provide you reasoning for the term esoteric.
The logic here is unassailable. The Book of Mormon Isaiah came from a different, more complete source than did the KJV or the LXX. If it were a simple matter of "all" and "Tarshish" could be the same thing, it would not have come up in the Book of Mormon Isaiah. This seems too simple to try to talk around. Wright's little one liner doesn't do it.
How can you say that Joseph, or anyone who may have been involved in the Book of Mormon text, could not have had access to the fact that the "ships of Tarshish" also referred to the "ships of the sea"? Did you really read Wright's article? He provided multiple pre-1830 references that connected those phrases in specific reference to the Septuagint. Why is it not possible that the writer of the Book of Mormon simply added known facts to the KJV phrase?
Are you going to even answer the questions that I asked? Do you really believe that a "logical reasonable mind"
must accept the same conclusion that you have come to?
cacheman