Carmack's current position on Book of Mormon authorship

The catch-all forum for general topics and debates. Minimal moderation. Rated PG to PG-13.
Post Reply
Marcus
God
Posts: 7975
Joined: Mon Oct 25, 2021 10:44 pm

Carmack's current position on Book of Mormon authorship

Post by Marcus »

Carmack's extreme position on authorship has gotten a bit more extreme, if that's even possible.
...Recall that no one ever spoke English (from the 1300s forward) with something like the verbal complementation pattern of the Book of Mormon (n > 700, strongly finite). Joseph Smith did not speak that way. And it is a written style much more than an oral style, but no one ever wrote an original English composition that approaches what the Book of Mormon has. Only an older, long text could have something approaching it, and almost all of these are now in the digital databases.

Recall that people did write with the interesting personal relative pronoun usage of the Book of Mormon, but only in the middle of the early modern period – not after or before. It is neither biblical nor pseudo-archaic in formation. And Joseph Smith did not speak that way.

And so on.

Even if the above points were relevant to a linguistic analysis of the Book of Mormon, it would not explain the English usage shift. The complex shift mostly occurs somewhere in 3 Nephi and it is mostly to greater archaism. It indicates multiple authorship, yet only one person dictated the original Book of Mormon text. It simply does not matter what obscure explanation might be offered based on region, genre, class, or ephemeral / noncanonical status.

In terms of the shift, recall that Metcalfe wrote about t|wherefore in 1993, and someone noticed the whoso|ever shift in the 1980s. I noticed a strong shift to "after|before|because that" and save, and now many others. As mentioned, I have identified 30+ usage shifts, and some things, such as the save shift, show additional patterns. An overall shift is real and rules out Joseph Smith wording it.

https://www.mormondialogue.org/topic/11 ... 1210269092
[bolding added by me]

This statement is particularly problematic:
"It indicates multiple authorship, yet only one person dictated the original Book of Mormon text."

Given the amount of plagiarism and borrowing done by Smith, is it really reasonable to conclude only one person was involved?
Marcus
God
Posts: 7975
Joined: Mon Oct 25, 2021 10:44 pm

Re: Carmack's current position on Book of Mormon authorship

Post by Marcus »

Overall, those who entertain secular notions with regard to the Book of Mormon are quite credulous, in a number of ways. They are protected in their credulity by academic priorities.

Here is just one of many ways they are credulous with regard to Book of Mormon English usage.

American English speakers and writers preferred except to save; the Book of Mormon has mostly save, which is a rare thing among texts with large numbers of except.

AmE native speakers employed these two words as prepositions almost all the time; the Book of Mormon as conjunctions almost all the time.

Historically speaking, the conjunction save was used as a coordinator most of the time; in the Book of Mormon, as a subordinator almost all the time.

Conjunctive use was almost always "save that S"; in the Book of Mormon, almost always "save S."

Overall, the Book of Mormon's save usage is unique textually. It is archaic in formation, and very frequently marked for the subjunctive mood, both synthetically and analytically.

For the credulous, Joseph Smith generated the above as a matter of routine pseudo-archaism, even though there is no support for the above Book of Mormon usage among any pseudo-archaic text. (The above is also very different from biblical usage.)

Edited Thursday at 09:46 AM by champatsch

https://www.mormondialogue.org/topic/11 ... 1210269158
In other words, Carmack assumes that the only alternative explanation is that Smith wrote like a typical pseudo-biblical author of his time, even though he has stated that such authors were typically more educated and more literate than Smith.

Then, he states that if Smith did NOT write like pseudo-archaic authors who were more literate and educated than he was, the only other conclusion is that more than one persons, from several previous centuries, translated the Book of Mormon first, and then dictated it to Smith. This does nothing more than push the problem of supernatural explanations further into the past, in an extremely complicated way.

Additionally, there is the problem that he had to retract somewhere around 60 to 80% of his previous findings of archaism. His research record is not strong, so simply taking his conclusions as legitimate evidence is out of the question.
Marcus
God
Posts: 7975
Joined: Mon Oct 25, 2021 10:44 pm

Re: Carmack's current position on Book of Mormon authorship

Post by Marcus »

The Book of Mormon being "more British than American" was new to me, so I am posting Carmack's full statement, including his argument that Analytics is using circular reasoning, with which I strongly disagree:
j. mason wrote: On 3/21/2026 at 1:32 PM, Analytics said:
"I'd also note that at least one of the constructions you identified as genuinely archaic in this thread appear in the Doctrine and Covenants: specifically D&C 18:15 (“if it so be") and D&C 27:2 ("if it so be"). The D&C isn't a translation of an ancient record; it's Joseph Smith's own directly dictated revelations. If these features appear there too, it seems to suggest these words were in fact available to Joseph Smith to use in a pseudo-archaic way."

I don't think Joseph Smith was wording the revelations in the D & C, anymore than he was wording the text of the Book of Mormon. Witnesses all said that he "dictated" the revelations.
carmack wrote: Yes, this is circular reasoning by Analytics. Joseph Smith's revelatory language, even derivative revelatory language, cannot be used as evidence for or against Joseph Smith's ability to produce a specific item of revelatory language in the Book of Mormon. Once again, Analytics shows a lack of insight and makes missteps.

D&C 67 suggests that Joseph Smith did not word Doctrine and Covenants revelations, otherwise others who were more literate would have been able to equal or surpass the expressive brilliance of the revelations, which are full of formal, literate, and archaic language.

[in my opinion, the previous statements constitute circular reasoning on Carmack's part.]

Remember that the Book of Mormon is more British than American in its expression, on balance.

It is also more written than oral in its style in various ways, of which hath been spoken.

"If it so be" was still used, rarely, in the 19th century. It was used at a much, much higher rate earlier than later. The argument relative to "if it so be" is exactly how I presented it earlier in this thread. It is not what Analytics implies in what he just wrote, quoted above.

In a corpus of 25 pseudo-archaic authors, assembled without bias (with the help of two people who think Joseph Smith authored the Book of Mormon), four of the pseudo-archaic authors only used the biblical form, "if so be." Bunyan only used the biblical form. The Book of Mormon only used the nonbiblical form of rhetorical if, 42 times, six times with subjunctive, modal shall, marking the usage as archaic. The usage rate shifts at 3 Nephi 16 dramatically. Joseph Smith supposedly dictated the Book of Mormon based on familiarity with King James English. This is evidence against that. The position that Joseph Smith worded these is incoherent and weak. It is quite annoying having to spell this out time and time again to supposedly bright, analytical minds.

Edited March 22 by champatsch

https://www.mormondialogue.org/topic/11 ... 1210268284
User avatar
Limnor
God
Posts: 1580
Joined: Mon Sep 04, 2023 12:55 am

Re: Carmack's current position on Book of Mormon authorship

Post by Limnor »

“expressive brilliance of the revelations” lol

It’s funny to me that people will believe these explanations but Roman a clef is somehow beyond the pale.
User avatar
Gabriel
Teacher
Posts: 263
Joined: Thu Jan 21, 2021 10:20 pm

Re: Carmack's current position on Book of Mormon authorship

Post by Gabriel »

Marcus wrote:
Sat Apr 11, 2026 11:54 am
Overall, those who entertain secular notions with regard to the Book of Mormon are quite credulous, in a number of ways. They are protected in their credulity by academic priorities.

Here is just one of many ways they are credulous with regard to Book of Mormon English usage.

American English speakers and writers preferred except to save; the Book of Mormon has mostly save, which is a rare thing among texts with large numbers of except.

AmE native speakers employed these two words as prepositions almost all the time; the Book of Mormon as conjunctions almost all the time.

Historically speaking, the conjunction save was used as a coordinator most of the time; in the Book of Mormon, as a subordinator almost all the time.

Conjunctive use was almost always "save that S"; in the Book of Mormon, almost always "save S."

Overall, the Book of Mormon's save usage is unique textually. It is archaic in formation, and very frequently marked for the subjunctive mood, both synthetically and analytically.

For the credulous, Joseph Smith generated the above as a matter of routine pseudo-archaism, even though there is no support for the above Book of Mormon usage among any pseudo-archaic text. (The above is also very different from biblical usage.)

Edited Thursday at 09:46 AM by champatsch

https://www.mormondialogue.org/topic/11 ... 1210269158
In other words, Carmack assumes that the only alternative explanation is that Smith wrote like a typical pseudo-biblical author of his time, even though he has stated that such authors were typically more educated and more literate than Smith.

Then, he states that if Smith did NOT write like pseudo-archaic authors who were more literate and educated than he was, the only other conclusion is that more than one persons, from several previous centuries, translated the Book of Mormon first, and then dictated it to Smith. This does nothing more than push the problem of supernatural explanations further into the past, in an extremely complicated way.

Additionally, there is the problem that he had to retract somewhere around 60 to 80% of his previous findings of archaism. His research record is not strong, so simply taking his conclusions as legitimate evidence is out of the question.


The following is kind of slapped together at the spur of the moment. Forgive my lack of rigor.
Walter Scott was immensely popular in 19th-century America, becoming a literary sensation and a "best-selling" author whose works dominated the American book market. Between 1814 and 1823, over half a million volumes of his novels and poems were sold in the U.S., influencing American literature, culture, and, according to some, influencing the social structure of the South.

Sir Walter Scott frequently used the word "save" in his novels, often employing it in the archaic or formal sense meaning "except," "but," or "with the exception of." It appears regularly in his dialogue, narration, and character descriptions to convey a sense of historical, formal, or regional (Scottish) tone.

From Waverley: "But I desire to gain no adherents save from affection and conviction..."

From The Talisman: "He is the friend of man, save when man justly incurs his enmity."

From The Heart of Midlothian: Descriptions often feature the phrase, "No one saw her, save her sister..." (A common formulation in his narratives).

From Ivanhoe: In describing the knights, Scott might use phrasing like: "There was no one present, save the Knight of Ivanhoe, who dared to..." (Generic example reflecting his style in that work).

"The whole brethren, saving the lame Sacristan, had transferred themselves to Coningsburgh..." (Chapter 42)

"...seldom heard save from the tongues of the wretched and degraded serfs..." (Chapter XXVII)

"My master...will take nought from the Templar save his life's-blood." (Chapter XI)

"...save as thou art a servant of God, a freeman." (Chapter XXVII)
In Ivanhoe alone, I noticed that the word "save" in terms of "except" or "but" was used at least 40 times. It would have been used much more in his "Waverly" novels that were set in Scotland.

The following is also a curious quote from Ivanhoe regarding one of the Knights Templar:
“Bois-Guilbert? That name has been spread wide both for good and evil. They say he is valiant as the bravest of his order; but stained with their usual vices…”
Fence Sitter
Area Authority
Posts: 618
Joined: Wed Oct 28, 2020 2:02 am

Re: Carmack's current position on Book of Mormon authorship

Post by Fence Sitter »

Gabriel wrote:
Sat Apr 11, 2026 3:14 pm

The following is kind of slapped together at the spur of the moment. Forgive my lack of rigor.
Walter Scott was immensely popular in 19th-century America, becoming a literary sensation and a "best-selling" author whose works dominated the American book market. Between 1814 and 1823, over half a million volumes of his novels and poems were sold in the U.S., influencing American literature, culture, and, according to some, influencing the social structure of the South.

Sir Walter Scott frequently used the word "save" in his novels, often employing it in the archaic or formal sense meaning "except," "but," or "with the exception of." It appears regularly in his dialogue, narration, and character descriptions to convey a sense of historical, formal, or regional (Scottish) tone.

From Waverley: "But I desire to gain no adherents save from affection and conviction..."

From The Talisman: "He is the friend of man, save when man justly incurs his enmity."

From The Heart of Midlothian: Descriptions often feature the phrase, "No one saw her, save her sister..." (A common formulation in his narratives).

From Ivanhoe: In describing the knights, Scott might use phrasing like: "There was no one present, save the Knight of Ivanhoe, who dared to..." (Generic example reflecting his style in that work).

"The whole brethren, saving the lame Sacristan, had transferred themselves to Coningsburgh..." (Chapter 42)

"...seldom heard save from the tongues of the wretched and degraded serfs..." (Chapter XXVII)

"My master...will take nought from the Templar save his life's-blood." (Chapter XI)

"...save as thou art a servant of God, a freeman." (Chapter XXVII)
In Ivanhoe alone, I noticed that the word "save" in terms of "except" or "but" was used at least 40 times. It would have been used much more in his "Waverly" novels that were set in Scotland.

The following is also a curious quote from Ivanhoe regarding one of the Knights Templar:
“Bois-Guilbert? That name has been spread wide both for good and evil. They say he is valiant as the bravest of his order; but stained with their usual vices…”
For what it is worth, we know that in 1844 Smith owned a 5 volume set of Scotts Poetical Work which is listed as part of his donation to the Nauvoo Library and Literary Institute. See A Note on the Nauvoo Library and Literary Institute
by Kenneth Godfrey
User avatar
Limnor
God
Posts: 1580
Joined: Mon Sep 04, 2023 12:55 am

Re: Carmack's current position on Book of Mormon authorship

Post by Limnor »

Fence Sitter wrote:
Sat Apr 11, 2026 3:22 pm
Gabriel wrote:
Sat Apr 11, 2026 3:14 pm
The following is kind of slapped together at the spur of the moment. Forgive my lack of rigor.



In Ivanhoe alone, I noticed that the word "save" in terms of "except" or "but" was used at least 40 times. It would have been used much more in his "Waverly" novels that were set in Scotland.

The following is also a curious quote from Ivanhoe regarding one of the Knights Templar:

For what it is worth, we know that in 1844 Smith owned a 5 volume set of Scotts Poetical Work which is listed as part of his donation to the Nauvoo Library and Literary Institute. See A Note on the Nauvoo Library and Literary Institute
by Kenneth Godfrey
From the paper: “As far as this writer has been able to determine no historian or scholar has made a study of these books and the influence they may have had upon the prophets mind.”
User avatar
Everybody Wang Chung
God
Posts: 3723
Joined: Wed Oct 28, 2020 1:52 am

Re: Carmack's current position on Book of Mormon authorship

Post by Everybody Wang Chung »

The Book of Mormon is such a rancid slice of baloney that William Tyndale should probably sue for defamation just for being mentioned in the same breath as Carmack or the Book of Mormon. To suggest Tyndale had a ghost hand in such a butchered, crappy, incoherent narrative is an insult to the English language. It turns out Mark Twain wasn't being cynical when he called it "chloroform in print."

Can you imagine Tyndale ever being associated with something so crappy as this:

4 Nephi 1:6 - "And thus did the thirty and eighth year pass away, and also the thirty and ninth, and forty and first, and the forty and second, yea, even until forty and nine years had passed away, and also the fifty and first, and the fifty and second; yea, and even until fifty and nine years had passed away."
"I'm on paid sabbatical from BYU in exchange for my promise to use this time to finish two books."

Daniel C. Peterson, 2014
User avatar
malkie
God
Posts: 2818
Joined: Wed Oct 28, 2020 2:41 pm
Location: Ontario, Canada

Re: Carmack's current position on Book of Mormon authorship

Post by malkie »

Everybody Wang Chung wrote:
Sat Apr 11, 2026 8:53 pm
The Book of Mormon is such a rancid slice of baloney that William Tyndale should probably sue for defamation just for being mentioned in the same breath as Carmack or the Book of Mormon. To suggest Tyndale had a ghost hand in such a butchered, crappy, incoherent narrative is an insult to the English language. It turns out Mark Twain wasn't being cynical when he called it "chloroform in print."

Can you imagine Tyndale ever being associated with something so crappy as this:

4 Nephi 1:6 - "And thus did the thirty and eighth year pass away, and also the thirty and ninth, and forty and first, and the forty and second, yea, even until forty and nine years had passed away, and also the fifty and first, and the fifty and second; yea, and even until fifty and nine years had passed away."
We have a problem! The following years have "passed away":
  • thirty and eighth year
  • thirty and ninth
  • forty and first
  • forty and second
  • up to forty and ninth
  • fifty and first
  • fifty and second
  • up to fifty and ninth
Apparently the fortieth and fiftieth years are still ongoing.

Could Nephi not count, or was Joseph innumerate? I'm sure there's an easy explanation.
You can help Ukraine by talking for an hour a week!! PM me, or check www.enginprogram.org for details.
Слава Україні!, 𝑺𝒍𝒂𝒗𝒂 𝑼𝒌𝒓𝒂𝒊𝒏𝒊!
Fence Sitter
Area Authority
Posts: 618
Joined: Wed Oct 28, 2020 2:02 am

Re: Carmack's current position on Book of Mormon authorship

Post by Fence Sitter »

Limnor wrote:
Sat Apr 11, 2026 3:31 pm
From the paper: “As far as this writer has been able to determine no historian or scholar has made a study of these books and the influence they may have had upon the prophets mind.”
This was written in 1974, so I would expect that some or all of these sources have since been examined in detail. There has been extensive scholarly discussion regarding the extent to which the influence, or even direct use, of authors such as Thomas Dick, William Hone, Johann Mosheim, Joshua Seixas, Adam Clarke, and Josephus, and many more, can be detected in Joseph Smith’s literary output.
Post Reply