CaliforniaKid wrote:Hi trashcanman,
A few thoughts. First of all, the Berkeley study relied partly on non-contextual words in the English text of the Book of Mormon that aren't actually present in Hebrew. Second, the Berkeley group claimed to have verified that their method was valid in translation by applying it to a few English translations of German texts. This isn't necessarily the same as using it on translations from Hebrew, which is quite a bit further removed from English than German. Third, the Berkeley Group did not compare the Book of Mormon to the wordprint of Sidney Rigdon, whom many Spalding theorists (including our dearest Uncle) believe had something to do with its production. Fourth, the Berkeley study assumed singular (rather than composite) authorship for each of the two Book of Mormon books they tested, Alma and Nephi. (Again, D'Unk would not approve.) Fifth, the Berkeley Group admitted that wordprint studies might not return accurate results if the author had imposed an external structure (like chiasmus?) on the text. Sixth, the Berkeley researchers admitted that wordprint techniques that work for one kind of text or set of literary parameters might not work for all others (like texts written in imitation of pseudo-scriptural Jacobean style?). And finally, I believe that John Tvedtnes has said he does not support the use of wordprints as evidence for the Book of Mormon for some of the reasons cited above.
Best,
-Chris
How does the use of "King James English" factor in to the study? The Book of Mormon text in its orginal text (reformed egyptian) would not have possessed the same phrase structures as the English translation. Whether or not you (not YOU chris, but everyone) think Joseph wrote the Book of Mormon, or translated it from reformed egyptian, you must admit that he forced it into King James English, which was not his (Joseph Smith Jr's) standard method of writing and speaking. Do these wordprint studies address the fact that Joseph, either as a prophet or fraud, had to force the language into how it is found in the Book of Mormon? I am quite certain that if I tried to write in Old English style my word usage would be different. But, that is one of the essential assumptions and basis of the wordprint theory. Right?
EDIT:
I thought I read on fairwiki that 5000 words of text per author were required. Is that why some of the smaller books in the Book of Mormon were not part of the study?
EDIT #2:
Furthermore, don't the basis of these wordprint analyses chain the Book of Mormon to a word for word strict translation? It seems that any notion of Joseph taking the concepts and puting them into his own words is disqualified by the results of these studies.