Book of Mormon Borrowings from the New Testament

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_Roger
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Re: Book of Mormon Borrowings from the New Testament

Post by _Roger »

Hi Tobin:

That isn't very compelling for two reasons.


I'll grant that it isn't very compelling for those who are predisposed to believe in Joseph Smith in spite of compelling reasons not to. For those individuals, nothing is very compelling. For the rest of us, it's pretty compelling.

First, the Book of Mormon was produced by a human being with the help of God - not by God directly.


Classic apologetics. This is not the story given by those who were there to their contemporaries. Their assertions were that each word was provided to Joseph through the stone by God, which eliminated the claim that Joseph could have done this on his own. The "study it out in your mind" (D & C 9) notion is in direct contradiction to the original claims. Skousen has elaborated on this, labeling the variances "loose," "tight," and "iron-clad" translations. You are taking the former position (because it's easier to defend) while virtually all of the early Mormon witnesses took the latter.

Assuming the production must be perfect is unrealistic unless you claim Joseph Smith was merely a sock puppet for God.


No, that's not what I claim, that's essentially what Emma Smith, David Whitmer and other eyewitnesses claim. The question is whether they were dupes or in on the con.

I do not assume "the production must be perfect," however, the method described by those early witnesses leaves no other alternative. If we are to accept their testimony, then the only possible areas for the introduction of mistakes into the text would have been the production of the printer's copy and the printer himself. Whitmer even has God correcting Joseph's spelling errors. This presents a huge problem. Why should I believe your version of how the Book of Mormon came to be over David Whitmer's?

In that case, then why have Joseph Smith involved at all? God could just have printed the book himself.


Good question. Ask David Whitmer or Emma Smith.

The second problem is that you haven't established these are actually mistakes or not. Any translation is going to be relatively inexact no matter what, so stating there exists some perfect translation is unreasonable.


Suggesting that the equivalent to "mices" and "geeses" is not a mistake is unreasonable.

If you define any translation, such as the KJV, less than this perfect translation that can't possibly exist as a mistake, then you are just manufacturing issues.


Are you suggesting that King James' translators, translated by the gift and power of God?
"...a pious lie, you know, has a great deal more influence with an ignorant people than a profane one."

- Sidney Rigdon, as quoted in the Quincy Whig, June 8, 1839, vol 2 #6.
_Tobin
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Re: Book of Mormon Borrowings from the New Testament

Post by _Tobin »

Roger wrote:
First, the Book of Mormon was produced by a human being with the help of God - not by God directly.
Classic apologetics. This is not the story given by those who were there to their contemporaries. Their assertions were that each word was provided to Joseph through the stone by God, which eliminated the claim that Joseph could have done this on his own. The "study it out in your mind" (D & C 9) notion is in direct contradiction to the original claims. Skousen has elaborated on this, labeling the variances "loose," "tight," and "iron-clad" translations. You are taking the former position (because it's easier to defend) while virtually all of the early Mormon witnesses took the latter.
Actually, the fallacy known as "the call to perfection", which you obviously endorse, has nothing to do with apologetics. When you understand other languages and the translation process, you realize that translations are representations and there are many choices and compromises made along the way.
Roger wrote:
Assuming the production must be perfect is unrealistic unless you claim Joseph Smith was merely a sock puppet for God.
No, that's not what I claim, that's essentially what Emma Smith, David Whitmer and other eyewitnesses claim. The question is whether they were dupes or in on the con.
None of them actually did the translation. Clearly Joseph Smith was necessary and used for the process and that is all we can determine. Since I've never done it and neither have you, we have no idea what was involved in deriving the translations. In Mormon scripture, when the Lord speaks to Oliver about it he says:
But, behold, I say unto you, that you must study it out in your mind; then you must ask me if it be right, and if it is right I will cause that your bosom shall burn within you; therefore, you shall feel that it is right.
This is hardly the action of a sock puppet.
Roger wrote:I do not assume "the production must be perfect," however, the method described by those early witnesses leaves no other alternative. If we are to accept their testimony, then the only possible areas for the introduction of mistakes into the text would have been the production of the printer's copy and the printer himself. Whitmer even has God correcting Joseph's spelling errors. This presents a huge problem. Why should I believe your version of how the Book of Mormon came to be over David Whitmer's?
I have already noted your acceptance of that fallacy. And speaking as a believer, I don't accept any representation as being 100% accurate. The purpose of the scriptures are to draw you to God and get you to seek and speak with him to discover the truth or a pure representation. It is your failure to grasp what scipture is and how it is derived that is the problem here, not the translations.
Roger wrote:
In that case, then why have Joseph Smith involved at all? God could just have printed the book himself.

Good question. Ask David Whitmer or Emma Smith.
I've dealt with that mistaken view above.
Roger wrote:
The second problem is that you haven't established these are actually mistakes or not. Any translation is going to be relatively inexact no matter what, so stating there exists some perfect translation is unreasonable.
Suggesting that the equivalent to "mices" and "geeses" is not a mistake is unreasonable.
Again, this is a superficial criticism and rather insipid. The KJV is an ENGLISH translation of the Bible. It isn't in Hebrew and various words are anglicized. Also several Bibles used these words including Great Bible (Cranmer) 1540, the Bishops’ Bible 1568, the Geneva Bible 1599 - so the notion it is grammatically wrong in the English of that period is preposterous.
Roger wrote:
If you define any translation, such as the KJV, less than this perfect translation that can't possibly exist as a mistake, then you are just manufacturing issues.
Are you suggesting that King James' translators, translated by the gift and power of God?
I'm saying all translations share these attributes. A translation is a representation and you have to make certain choices when translating. Your simplisitic view has no bearing on the reality of the process.
"You lack vision, but I see a place where people get on and off the freeway. On and off, off and on all day, all night.... Tire salons, automobile dealerships and wonderful, wonderful billboards reaching as far as the eye can see. My God, it'll be beautiful." -- Judge Doom
_Roger
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Re: Book of Mormon Borrowings from the New Testament

Post by _Roger »

Tobin:

This discussion will likely devolve into a waste of time. If you want to believe in Joseph Smith no amount of reason can change that.

Actually, the fallacy known as "the call to perfection", which you obviously endorse, has nothing to do with apologetics. When you understand other languages and the translation process, you realize that translations are representations and there are many choices and compromises made along the way.


You are presenting a strawman. Of course translations are representations. Of course there are choices when doing legitimate translation and having choices leads to subjectivity. I have never stated otherwise. This is not a translation problem, even by your Joseph-friendly definition which involves mystically "studying it out in your mind." The problem is one of simple grammar and whether God should know how to speak English.

No, that's not what I claim, that's essentially what Emma Smith, David Whitmer and other eyewitnesses claim. The question is whether they were dupes or in on the con.

None of them actually did the translation. Clearly Joseph Smith was necessary and used for the process and that is all we can determine. Since I've never done it and neither have you, we have no idea what was involved in deriving the translations.


It would have been equally "necessary" for Joseph Smith to have been "used for the process" if he was a con-artist. This notion is not pulled out of thin air, but is consistent with his treasure-hunting history.

The witnesses were on site when the "translation" was occurring and actively facilitated and in some cases participated in the process. Joseph was notorious for not giving details. The best reports (and that's a relative term) come from those who were eyewitnesses. Why should I believe your version over David Whitmer's and Emma Smith's?

In Mormon scripture, when the Lord speaks to Oliver about it he says:

But, behold, I say unto you, that you must study it out in your mind; then you must ask me if it be right, and if it is right I will cause that your bosom shall burn within you; therefore, you shall feel that it is right.

This is hardly the action of a sock puppet.


Yes, I already noted that D & C 9 stands in contradiction to the testimony of the early Book of Mormon eyewitnesses. There is an inconsistency here, like we find throughout many of the accounts of early Mormonism. But the inconsistency is explained by context. D & C 9 is a "revelation" given to appease Oliver Cowdery after he failed to "translate." Why couldn't he do it? Well, Oliver, because you didn't know that you have to "study it out in your mind. But never mind that now, you were meant to write for Joseph, not translate, anyway." The inconsistency makes sense when viewed from that context. Nevertheless, it becomes problematic when compared to statements from those who were eyewitnesses to the process.

I do not assume "the production must be perfect," however, the method described by those early witnesses leaves no other alternative. If we are to accept their testimony, then the only possible areas for the introduction of mistakes into the text would have been the production of the printer's copy and the printer himself. Whitmer even has God correcting Joseph's spelling errors. This presents a huge problem. Why should I believe your version of how the Book of Mormon came to be over David Whitmer's?

I have already noted your acceptance of that fallacy. And speaking as a believer, I don't accept any representation as being 100% accurate. The purpose of the scriptures are to draw you to God and get you to seek and speak with him to discover the truth or a pure representation. It is your failure to grasp what scipture is and how it is derived that is the problem here, not the translations.


I love how this is all my fault. Another apologetic tactic. Your problem is not with me, but with David Whitmer, Emma Smith and other early TBMs. This isn't about my testimony or my alleged fallacies; it's that you can't accept the testimony of David Whitmer, Emma Smith and other eyewitnesses and early TBMs as they gave it because doing so poses problems to your 21st century interpretation of how the Book of Mormon came to be. Why should I believe your version over theirs?

Suggesting that the equivalent to "mices" and "geeses" is not a mistake is unreasonable.

Again, this is a superficial criticism and rather insipid. The KJV is an ENGLISH translation of the Bible. It isn't in Hebrew and various words are anglicized. Also several Bibles used these words including Great Bible (Cranmer) 1540, the Bishops’ Bible 1568, the Geneva Bible 1599 - so the notion it is grammatically wrong in the English of that period is preposterous.


You can argue that choices are made in a legitimate translation process, but it's not so easy to render the rules of grammar to the realm of subjectivity. There are definite rules of grammar. Admittedly, those rules can and do change over time. The only way your argument works in this case, is if you can demonstrate that the use of the terms "seraphims" and "cherubims" was ever grammatically correct. I await that demonstration.

But let's say you can provide evidence that "seraphims" and "cherubims" were actually the correct usage in 1611 (I suspect you can't, but for the sake of discussion, let's pretend you can) what would that demonstrate? Such was not the case in 1829. In the best case scenario we have God choosing to go with "seraphims" instead of the correct 1829 usage while fully realizing that doing so will give critics like me ample ammunition to reasonably suggest that the Book of Mormon author simply borrowed from the KJV Bible. On the other hand, God, being God, could have clearly demonstrated that the Book of Mormon author was not copying from the KJV by simply using the correct 1829 usage of those terms.

My point is that God would have known this while Joseph Smith would not. This is clearly a problem unless you want to claim that Joseph is entirely responsible for those terms appearing as they do in the 1830 Book of Mormon, which is dangerously close to my own explanation and miles away from your early Book of Mormon witnesses whose testimony you want to believe under different circumstances.
"...a pious lie, you know, has a great deal more influence with an ignorant people than a profane one."

- Sidney Rigdon, as quoted in the Quincy Whig, June 8, 1839, vol 2 #6.
_Tobin
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Re: Book of Mormon Borrowings from the New Testament

Post by _Tobin »

Roger wrote:
Tobin wrote:Actually, the fallacy known as "the call to perfection", which you obviously endorse, has nothing to do with apologetics. When you understand other languages and the translation process, you realize that translations are representations and there are many choices and compromises made along the way.
You are presenting a strawman. Of course translations are representations. Of course there are choices when doing legitimate translation and having choices leads to subjectivity. I have never stated otherwise. This is not a translation problem, even by your Joseph-friendly definition which involves mystically "studying it out in your mind." The problem is one of simple grammar and whether God should know how to speak English.
There is no attempt to present a strawman. I was just noting your stated assumption was a fallacy and had little to do with translation of any kind. And you are simply restating your assertion about a grammar problem without actually ever demonstrating one exists in the KJB does not support your position either.

Roger wrote:No, that's not what I claim, that's essentially what Emma Smith, David Whitmer and other eyewitnesses claim. The question is whether they were dupes or in on the con.
Tobin wrote:None of them actually did the translation. Clearly Joseph Smith was necessary and used for the process and that is all we can determine. Since I've never done it and neither have you, we have no idea what was involved in deriving the translations.
It would have been equally "necessary" for Joseph Smith to have been "used for the process" if he was a con-artist. This notion is not pulled out of thin air, but is consistent with his treasure-hunting history.
Again, you are just making blanket assertions here without actual knowledge of the translation process itself and introducing your biased view that Joseph Smith was a con-artist and other irrelevant remarks. The point you seem to be failing repeatedly to address or establish is whether or not Joseph Smith was God's sock puppet (or even if there is a tradition of that in Mormonism). I think your view of the claims are simplistic and colored with bias and nothing more.

Roger wrote:The witnesses were on site when the "translation" was occurring and actively facilitated and in some cases participated in the process. Joseph was notorious for not giving details. The best reports (and that's a relative term) come from those who were eyewitnesses. Why should I believe your version over David Whitmer's and Emma Smith's?
Oliver Cowdrey actually tried to translate using the method Joseph Smith used and these other "witnesses" did not.
Roger wrote:Yes, I already noted that D & C 9 stands in contradiction to the testimony of the early Book of Mormon eyewitnesses. There is an inconsistency here, like we find throughout many of the accounts of early Mormonism. But the inconsistency is explained by context. D & C 9 is a "revelation" given to appease Oliver Cowdery after he failed to "translate." Why couldn't he do it? Well, Oliver, because you didn't know that you have to "study it out in your mind. But never mind that now, you were meant to write for Joseph, not translate, anyway." The inconsistency makes sense when viewed from that context. Nevertheless, it becomes problematic when compared to statements from those who were eyewitnesses to the process.
And as I've again noted, the only one of the witnesses that actually tried to translate was Oliver Cowdery. Instead, you dismiss a clear explanation of what may have been involved in the process and resort again to a simplistic view that Joseph Smith was a sock puppet which is laughable.
Roger wrote:
Tobin wrote:I have already noted your acceptance of that fallacy. And speaking as a believer, I don't accept any representation as being 100% accurate. The purpose of the scriptures are to draw you to God and get you to seek and speak with him to discover the truth or a pure representation. It is your failure to grasp what scipture is and how it is derived that is the problem here, not the translations.
I love how this is all my fault. Another apologetic tactic. Your problem is not with me, but with David Whitmer, Emma Smith and other early TBMs. This isn't about my testimony or my alleged fallacies; it's that you can't accept the testimony of David Whitmer, Emma Smith and other eyewitnesses and early TBMs as they gave it because doing so poses problems to your 21st century interpretation of how the Book of Mormon came to be. Why should I believe your version over theirs?
Not at all. You are cherry picking quotes and creating a false assertion that makes no sense. When directly confronted with evidence and statements otherwise by someone that actually attempted to translate as Joseph Smith did, you state that you prefer the view of witnesses who did not. Again, you are attempting to divert from the weakness of your position by stating this must be some apologetic tactic instead of reasonably attempting to grasp that perhaps someone that actually attempted to translate as Joseph Smith did would have a better understanding of the process than someone that did not.
Roger wrote:
Tobin wrote:Again, this is a superficial criticism and rather insipid. The KJV is an ENGLISH translation of the Bible. It isn't in Hebrew and various words are anglicized. Also several Bibles used these words including Great Bible (Cranmer) 1540, the Bishops’ Bible 1568, the Geneva Bible 1599 - so the notion it is grammatically wrong in the English of that period is preposterous.
You can argue that choices are made in a legitimate translation process, but it's not so easy to render the rules of grammar to the realm of subjectivity. There are definite rules of grammar. Admittedly, those rules can and do change over time. The only way your argument works in this case, is if you can demonstrate that the use of the terms "seraphims" and "cherubims" was ever grammatically correct. I await that demonstration.
Clearly it was grammatically correct in the KJB since other Bibles from that time period employ the same words. There is nothing subjective about it. All you are doing is denying the evidence that you are wrong and refusing to acknowledge your mistake.
Roger wrote:But let's say you can provide evidence that "seraphims" and "cherubims" were actually the correct usage in 1611 (I suspect you can't, but for the sake of discussion, let's pretend you can) what would that demonstrate? Such was not the case in 1829. In the best case scenario we have God choosing to go with "seraphims" instead of the correct 1829 usage while fully realizing that doing so will give critics like me ample ammunition to reasonably suggest that the Book of Mormon author simply borrowed from the KJV Bible. On the other hand, God, being God, could have clearly demonstrated that the Book of Mormon author was not copying from the KJV by simply using the correct 1829 usage of those terms.
The Book of Mormon uses the KJV English. As I've already established that , these words were obviously correct in the KJB due to their use in other English Bibles from the era so finding them in the Book of Mormon is unremarkable.
Roger wrote:My point is that God would have known this while Joseph Smith would not. This is clearly a problem unless you want to claim that Joseph is entirely responsible for those terms appearing as they do in the 1830 Book of Mormon, which is dangerously close to my own explanation and miles away from your early Book of Mormon witnesses whose testimony you want to believe under different circumstances.
Your point makes little sense. Religious texts of Joseph Smith era were in the KJB style of English. That is not a weakness of the Book of Mormon. It simply means that the Book of Mormon was translated to be a religious text using the religious English of the period.
"You lack vision, but I see a place where people get on and off the freeway. On and off, off and on all day, all night.... Tire salons, automobile dealerships and wonderful, wonderful billboards reaching as far as the eye can see. My God, it'll be beautiful." -- Judge Doom
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Re: Book of Mormon Borrowings from the New Testament

Post by _LittleNipper »

Tobin wrote:
LittleNipper wrote:God used the right person at the correct time to express perfectly what God needed to reveal and without error. Mr. Smith was not that man. And even Mormons make excuses for him.
If God can magically make us perfect in this life, why is there any sin at all? Is God just toying with us?


God picks the right person to express what God wishes to reveal in the way that person reveals it. The person isn't perfect, but God uses that imperfect talent perfectly. It is like when someone says "Yes," when they should have said "No"; however, NO was the corrected responce...
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Re: Book of Mormon Borrowings from the New Testament

Post by _Tobin »

Tobin wrote:
LittleNipper wrote:God used the right person at the correct time to express perfectly what God needed to reveal and without error. Mr. Smith was not that man. And even Mormons make excuses for him.
If God can magically make us perfect in this life, why is there any sin at all? Is God just toying with us?

LittleNipper wrote:God picks the right person to express what God wishes to reveal in the way that person reveals it. The person isn't perfect, but God uses that imperfect talent perfectly. It is like when someone says "Yes," when they should have said "No"; however, NO was the corrected responce...


That's a dodge. If God can compel perfect actions, then there is no need for sin. Again, answer the question and don't just ignore it. Your proposition is God can compel man to convey his words perfectly without error. If that is true, then God can compel man to be perfect in this life and the idea of sin is ludicrous. Is God toying with us in your view?
"You lack vision, but I see a place where people get on and off the freeway. On and off, off and on all day, all night.... Tire salons, automobile dealerships and wonderful, wonderful billboards reaching as far as the eye can see. My God, it'll be beautiful." -- Judge Doom
_Roger
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Re: Book of Mormon Borrowings from the New Testament

Post by _Roger »

Tobin:

Again, this is a superficial criticism and rather insipid. The KJV is an ENGLISH translation of the Bible. It isn't in Hebrew and various words are anglicized. Also several Bibles used these words including Great Bible (Cranmer) 1540, the Bishops’ Bible 1568, the Geneva Bible 1599 - so the notion it is grammatically wrong in the English of that period is preposterous.


Please provide the exact quotes where "these words" are used in those Bibles.

Also, you keep ignoring my question. Why should I believe your version of how the Book of Mormon came to be over David Whitmer's version? Are you familiar with David Whitmer's claims?

the only one of the witnesses that actually tried to translate was Oliver Cowdery. Instead, you dismiss a clear explanation of what may have been involved in the process and resort again to a simplistic view that Joseph Smith was a sock puppet which is laughable.


It's not my view, whether simplistic or not. This is what you don't seem to understand. I am a Joseph Smith critic. I am convinced beyond doubt that Joseph Smith was never a prophet for many reasons beyond what we are discussing here. But the same cannot be said about David Whitmer or Emma Smith - at least if you accept their testimonies, which you do. (Or do you deny Whitmer's testimony of the Book of Mormon?)

The "clear explanation" that you refer to (D & C 9) was not given by Oliver Cowdery, but instead was allegedly given for Oliver Cowdery by God through Joseph Smith. I have acknowledged the disparity of the two versions and explained why they fit nicely with a skeptical view of this. Skousen - a believer in Joseph Smith, who I referred to earlier, has written an article on this
http://maxwellinstitute.BYU.edu/publica ... chapid=182
that you might find interesting.

Here is one of Skousen's observations

Witnesses of the translation process make two kinds of claims. First of all, they provide valuable evidence of what they actually saw taking place. Generally speaking, their actual observations are consistent with the physical evidence in the original manuscript. On the other hand, these witnesses frequently made claims about matters that they themselves could not observe. For instance, some described what they believed Joseph Smith actually saw in the interpreters; and many claimed that Joseph Smith could not go on until the scribe had written down letter-for-letter what Joseph saw. It turns out that these kinds of claims are not supported by the original manuscript. Of course, the witnesses themselves did not see what Joseph saw. Here they were either offering their own conjecture or perhaps recalling what Joseph might have told them. Nonetheless, all seemed to believe that Joseph Smith actually saw words in English, and there is evidence in the original manuscript to support this idea.


The fact that Whitmer's claims aren't consistent with the Book of Mormon production method you wish to promote in this thread does not work against a skeptical view of both Whitmer and Smith and Oliver. But it does pose a problem for those who wish to believe all of them.

Skousen - a believer - notes that:

For instance, some described what they believed Joseph Smith actually saw in the interpreters; and many claimed that Joseph Smith could not go on until the scribe had written down letter-for-letter what Joseph saw. It turns out that these kinds of claims are not supported by the original manuscript.


That "these kinds of claims are not supported by the original manuscript" is not a problem for the skeptic. It's a problem for the believer. The problem is compounded by the way in which these witnesses state their respective claims. They give no indication that "this is just my conjecture" or "this is what Joseph told me." Instead they make their claims as though it is the indisputable truth on the basis that they were there to witness the whole thing.

Skousen is correct to note that "many claimed that Joseph Smith could not go on until the scribe had written down letter-for-letter what Joseph saw." This, of course, is what is seriously problematic for your point of view. This is the opposite of what D & C 9 claims. This is what you equate with Joseph being a mere sock puppet and label ridiculous, as though doing so somehow challenges my point of view. Whether Joseph was a sock puppet or not, you're not challenging my point of view in so ridiculing, you're ridiculing the very people you choose to believe in other circumstances. It is they who make the claims you ridicule, not me. They were the ones who were there, not me. Not you. I don't believe them in either case (when they claim to know how Joseph translated or when they tell me they saw and held the plates) you want to believe them when it's expedient to do so and reject them when it isn't.

Nevertheless, you seem to prefer the D & C 9 version, (or what Skousen calls a loose translation) presumably because it allows you to better explain inconsistencies and poor grammar that are not easily attributed to God. Your version has Joseph playing a much more active role in the translation. But, as I've pointed out, that is a double-edged sword, because it also moves you dangerously close to my own skeptical point of view. The more you attribute the text to Joseph Smith as opposed to God, the more I agree with you and the less you agree with early Mormons.

So once again, why should I believe your version of how the Book of Mormon came to be over David Whitmer's version? You were not there. David was. Can you answer that?

If the answer is merely an appeal to D & C 9, then how do you explain the discrepancies between the two versions? How do you explain Whitmer's version and other early Mormon witnesses who, as Skousen says, make iron-clad claims about God even checking spelling before the translation could move on?
"...a pious lie, you know, has a great deal more influence with an ignorant people than a profane one."

- Sidney Rigdon, as quoted in the Quincy Whig, June 8, 1839, vol 2 #6.
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Re: Book of Mormon Borrowings from the New Testament

Post by _Tobin »

Roger wrote:
Again, this is a superficial criticism and rather insipid. The KJV is an ENGLISH translation of the Bible. It isn't in Hebrew and various words are anglicized. Also several Bibles used these words including Great Bible (Cranmer) 1540, the Bishops’ Bible 1568, the Geneva Bible 1599 - so the notion it is grammatically wrong in the English of that period is preposterous.
Please provide the exact quotes where "these words" are used in those Bibles.

You have access to the internet the same as I do and could look this up in a second. Here the the Great Bible (Cranmer) of 1540 use of cherubins:
http://thebiblecorner.com/englishbibles/thegreatbible/genesis/3.html
Gen 3:24 And so he droue out man, & at the east syde of the garden of Eden, he set Cherubins, & the glysterynge flame of a shakynge swerde, to kepe the waye of the tre of lyfe.

You are welcome to check the rest of the references if you wish. I'm really embarrassed for you.
Roger wrote:Also, you keep ignoring my question. Why should I believe your version of how the Book of Mormon came to be over David Whitmer's version? Are you familiar with David Whitmer's claims?
Listen very carefully. DAVID WHITMER did not translate nor attempt to translate the Book of Mormon. There is no good reason to put his views ahead of someone like Joseph Smith (or Joseph Smith speaking for the Lord), who actually did it. Your view that Joseph Smith was simply a sock puppet and using cherry picked quotes to support such a ridiculous contention is comical.
Roger wrote:
the only one of the witnesses that actually tried to translate was Oliver Cowdery. Instead, you dismiss a clear explanation of what may have been involved in the process and resort again to a simplistic view that Joseph Smith was a sock puppet which is laughable.
It's not my view, whether simplistic or not. This is what you don't seem to understand. I am a Joseph Smith critic. I am convinced beyond doubt that Joseph Smith was never a prophet for many reasons beyond what we are discussing here. But the same cannot be said about David Whitmer or Emma Smith - at least if you accept their testimonies, which you do. (Or do you deny Whitmer's testimony of the Book of Mormon?)
Again who cares what they said? They never translated nor attempted it. And even if the words did appear to Joseph Smith, how were those words arrived at? Did he have study it out till the concepts became clear? The clearest statement about it from Joseph Smith (or the Lord) is in D&C 9.
Roger wrote:The "clear explanation" that you refer to (D & C 9) was not given by Oliver Cowdery, but instead was allegedly given for Oliver Cowdery by God through Joseph Smith. I have acknowledged the disparity of the two versions and explained why they fit nicely with a skeptical view of this. Skousen - a believer in Joseph Smith, who I referred to earlier, has written an article on this
http://maxwellinstitute.BYU.edu/publica ... chapid=182
that you might find interesting.
Even if that is your contention, Joseph Smith is ALSO NOT saying Oliver Cowdery was to act as a sock puppet. Clearly you have no support for the Joseph Smith was God's sock puppet contention whatsoever other than to misapply quotes from people who did not translate the Book of Mormon themselves. Even Skousen does not support this contention. So if you wish to assert Joseph Smith was God's sock puppet, that is your affair. But I have no further interest in discussing it. I consider it an absurd notion.
"You lack vision, but I see a place where people get on and off the freeway. On and off, off and on all day, all night.... Tire salons, automobile dealerships and wonderful, wonderful billboards reaching as far as the eye can see. My God, it'll be beautiful." -- Judge Doom
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Re: Book of Mormon Borrowings from the New Testament

Post by _Roger »

Tobin:

You are welcome to check the rest of the references if you wish. I'm really embarrassed for you.


Why would you be embarrassed for me? Seems odd. You made a claim without support and I asked you to support the claim. Why the drama?

That other English translators copied the same error demonstrates that multiple translators can repeat the same error. Whether the mistake originated with King James or earlier is irrelevant. This is the exact point I am making with regard to seraphims and cherubims also being copied into the text of the Book of Mormon. The mistakes are transmitted by fallible humans who didn't understand that:

In Hebrew, the addition of the suffix im at the end of a word indicates the plural of that word. So cherubim is the Hebrew word that refers to two or more cherubs. (The translators of the King James Version of the Bible seemed not to have understood this, and chose to use the word cherubims with an unneeded, added “s” on the word.)

http://youall.com/angelanswers/bibleangels2.htm


see also:

"Cher"u"bim (?), n. The Hebrew plural of Cherub.. Cf. Seraphim. and hand; Cherubim's, in the King James version of the Bible, is an incorrect form, made by adding the English plural termination to the Hebrew plural cherubim instead of to the singular cherub."

The word cherub (cherubim is the Hebrew masculine plural) is a word borrowed from the Assyrian kirubu, from karâbu, "to be near", hence it means near ones, familiars, personal servants, bodyguards, courtiers.

http://www.faeriekeeper.net/cherubs3.htm


and many others.

Instead of simply acknowledging that adding an unnecessary "s" to the end of these words is as egregious as saying "mices" or "geeses," you come to the strange and unsupported notion that the usage is not mistaken at all because other translators made the same mistake. I realize you are forced into this logic because of your unwavering devotion to Joseph Smith, but reality is what reality is. You wouldn't be seriously attempting to argue that a redundant plural is not a mistake if the Book of Mormon wasn't forcing you to come to that conclusion.

As I stated earlier: "This discussion will likely devolve into a waste of time. If you want to believe in Joseph Smith no amount of reason can change that."

Also, you keep ignoring my question. Why should I believe your version of how the Book of Mormon came to be over David Whitmer's version? Are you familiar with David Whitmer's claims?

Listen very carefully. DAVID WHITMER did not translate nor attempt to translate the Book of Mormon. There is no good reason to put his views ahead of someone like Joseph Smith (or Joseph Smith speaking for the Lord), who actually did it. Your view that Joseph Smith was simply a sock puppet and using cherry picked quotes to support such a ridiculous contention is comical.


My view *IS NOT* "that Joseph Smith was simply a sock puppet." My view is that Joseph Smith was a very good con-man. The quotes I refer to are not "cherry picked." That is nonsense. And they are not my quotes, nor do I accept them as valid. I don't know how to be more clear than that.

It's not my view, whether simplistic or not. This is what you don't seem to understand. I am a Joseph Smith critic. I am convinced beyond doubt that Joseph Smith was never a prophet for many reasons beyond what we are discussing here. But the same cannot be said about David Whitmer or Emma Smith - at least if you accept their testimonies, which you do. (Or do you deny Whitmer's testimony of the Book of Mormon?)

Again who cares what they said? They never translated nor attempted it.


You care what they said. Or at least you should. Do you reject David Whitmer's testimony of the Book of Mormon? Do you reject Emma Smith's testimony that Joseph could start translating from the point he left off without having the text read back to him? Or that he corrected her spelling without seeing what she had written?

And even if the words did appear to Joseph Smith, how were those words arrived at? Did he have study it out till the concepts became clear? The clearest statement about it from Joseph Smith (or the Lord) is in D&C 9.


According to Whitmer: "the words would appear, and if he failed to spell the word right, it would stay till it was spelled right, then pass away; another come, and so on."

According to Joseph Knight: "But if it was not Spelt rite it would not go away till it was rite, so we see it was marvelous."

The implication is that God was producing the words (so that no man might boast). But I - like you - don't believe these early Mormon witnesses.

The problem with the loose version you prefer, (aside from the fact that you have to reject testimony from people you otherwise trust) is that it is not much of a leap from Joseph "studying it out in his mind" to Joseph coming up with the text by himself - which is what a con-artist would do. How much room does your version leave for God in the process?

Even if that is your contention, Joseph Smith is ALSO NOT saying Oliver Cowdery was to act as a sock puppet. Clearly you have no support for the Joseph Smith was God's sock puppet contention whatsoever other than to misapply quotes from people who did not translate the Book of Mormon themselves. Even Skousen does not support this contention. So if you wish to assert Joseph Smith was God's sock puppet, that is your affair. But I have no further interest in discussing it. I consider it an absurd notion.


Are you listening to what I'm saying? When have I ever wished "to assert Joseph Smith was God's sock puppet"? That is nonsense. I am highly critical of Joseph Smith. You don't seem to get that. I don't believe he was God's anything other than a false prophet, con-man.

Skousen, on the other hand, does acknowledge my point which is that the early witnesses (not me) that were there when this was happening all agreed on the very point you are denying (bold mine):

There appear to be three possible kinds of control over the dictation of the Book of Mormon text:

Loose control: Ideas were revealed to Joseph Smith, and he put the ideas into his own language (a theory advocated by many Book of Mormon scholars over the years).
Tight control: Joseph Smith saw specific words written out in English and read them off to the scribe—the accuracy of the resulting text depending on the carefulness of Joseph Smith and his scribe.
Iron-clad control: Joseph Smith (or the interpreters themselves) would not allow any error made by the scribe to remain (including the spelling of common words).
One can also conceive of mixtures of these different kinds of control. For instance, one might argue for tight control over the spelling of specific names, but loose control over the English phraseology itself.

A number of statements from the witnesses definitely show that virtually all of them believed in the iron-clad theory:

Joseph Knight (autograph [between 1833 and 1847]):

But if it was not Spelt rite it would not go away till it was rite, so we see it was marvelous.7

Emma Smith (Edmund C. Briggs interview, 1856):

When my husband was translating the Book of Mormon, I wrote a part of it, as he dictated each sentence, word for word, and when he came to proper names he could not pronounce, or long words, he spelled them out, and while I was writing them, if I made a mistake in spelling, he would stop me and correct my spelling, although it was impossible for him to see how I was writing them down at the time.8

Martin Harris (Edward Stevenson's 1881 account):

By aid of the seer stone, sentences would appear and were read by the Prophet and written by Martin, and when finished he would say, "Written," and if correctly written, that sentence would disappear and another appear in its place, but if not written correctly it remained until corrected, so that the translation was just as it was engraven on the plates, precisely in the language then used.9

David Whitmer (Eri B. Mullin interview, 1874):

. . . the words would appear, and if he failed to spell the word right, it would stay till it was spelled right, then pass away; another come, and so on.10

David Whitmer (James H. Hart interview, 1884):

Sometimes Joseph could not pronounce the words correctly, having had but little education; and if by any means a mistake was made in the copy, the luminous writing would remain until it was corrected. It sometimes took Oliver several trials to get the right letters to spell correctly some of the more difficult words, but when he had written them correctly, the characters and the interpretation would disappear and the interpretation would disappear [a dittography?], and be replaced by other characters and their interpretation.11

A similar example advocating iron-clad control is the secondary witness of Samuel W. Richards (in a statement recorded over fifty-eight years later, on 25 May 1907).12 According to Richards, Oliver Cowdery explained to him during the winter of 1848—49 how Joseph Smith had translated:

Every word was distinctly visible even down to every letter;
and if Oliver omitted a word or failed to spell a word correctly, the translation remained on the "interpreter" until it was copied correctly.

http://maxwellinstitute.BYU.edu/publica ... chapid=182


So... once again... How do you explain the discrepancies between the two versions? How do you explain Whitmer's version and other early Mormon witnesses who, as Skousen says, make iron-clad claims about God even checking spelling before the translation could move on? And how do you reconcile that with D & C 9?
"...a pious lie, you know, has a great deal more influence with an ignorant people than a profane one."

- Sidney Rigdon, as quoted in the Quincy Whig, June 8, 1839, vol 2 #6.
_Tobin
_Emeritus
Posts: 8417
Joined: Wed Feb 01, 2012 6:01 pm

Re: Book of Mormon Borrowings from the New Testament

Post by _Tobin »

Roger, welcome to ignore. You clearly have no interest in an honest discussion and are willing to maintain grossly absurd positions in the face of reasonable facts, such as other English Bibles that use exactly the same words, that any reasonable person would acknowledge. I see no point to discussing this or any other topic on this forum with you. I don't find you bring anything to the table that is remotely interesting and your opinions are unsupported by the facts.
"You lack vision, but I see a place where people get on and off the freeway. On and off, off and on all day, all night.... Tire salons, automobile dealerships and wonderful, wonderful billboards reaching as far as the eye can see. My God, it'll be beautiful." -- Judge Doom
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