canpakes wrote:ldsfaqs wrote:Joseph's sealing to other mens wives were all Sealings, further leading to the fact that it was a Religious Ordinance, not in fact Polygamy as anti's like to claim.
To restate how I read your response - you're saying that these don't represent polygamy or polyandry on the part of either participant, and that these actions are not, in any sense, a marriage of any type. Is that correct?
canpakes wrote:ldsfaqs wrote:Further, if you read FAIR on these sealings, you will see they were done with full knowledge of the Husbands.
Of course, if you read an anti-mormon website, they lie stating Joseph's sealings were "hidden".
I may have just missed it, but I don't see that either FAIR or Hales (via the link on the FAIR page) reports that all were done with "full knowledge" of the husbands. I only see where FAIR notes that the other husbands "didn't complain". That claim can also apply to a dead person, yes? So it similarly applies to a living person, and your statement needs something more to back it up.
Can you point to the statement from the FAIR page that supports your claim?
Your response:
ldsfaqs wrote:1. Nothing about that is false, they were sealings, not Polygamy. My not mentioning other issues and facts in that particular statement does not equal me not stating things at other times.
2. Polygamy is living with and having a relationship with more than one wife, and legally married.
All of Joseph's Polyandry marriages were Eternal Only Sealings, not time, thus they can't be classified as Polygamy.
If Joseph actually did in fact have sex with some of his wives, they "might" be able to be classifed as Polygamy, because they were legally married/sealed, and some of those marriages were for "Time" which could mean intimate relations were possible, but they would be more "daliances" rather than actual polygamy. But, they could quality. However, since I don't find "certainty" yet on whether he did have relations with any, I'm not going to call it anything other than what the evidence shows, Sealings only.
3. Not having any public statement from some of the Husbands or otherwise doesn't somehow mean Joseph was taking advantage of Married mens wives. Clearly his doing this with whatever support of the husbands shows that most of the marriages at least were only Sealings, and not in fact for his perverted fun and pleasure as anti's claim.
This response does not fully answer the questions.
1. You assert that Joseph's 'sealings' do not equate to polygamy. Do you interpret that the women that were sealed to him while simultaneously married to other fellows were practicing polyandry? I get the sense that you'd say, 'No', but I'd like for you to confirm this.
2. (Again) Can you point to the statement from the FAIR page that supports your claim that the other husbands of these women all knew that their wives were marrying Joseph?
3. You seem to be claiming that a 'sealing' is not equivalent to nor a replacement, in any way, for a
marriage. What, then, is the purpose of a
sealing, and how does it differ from a marriage? I want to know the differences
apart from the 'time/eternity' argument, which doesn't answer the question that I'm asking.
If you are actually invested in and serious about the LDS faith, then I'd guess that you would have no trouble at all with the third question.
Edited: to fix my atrocious typing, lol.