JAK wrote: Livingstone22 stated:
You just bypassed that I said I was an Agnostic in the philosophical sense. A man named T. X. Huxley is responsible for the common usage of the term among English speakers, namely, the suspended belief of God. Philosophers such as Protagoras, Herbert Spencer, and others promulgated the relation of the term to be used with respect to the unknowable. Here, in this sense, Agnosticism is used apart from any belief or disbelief--but to the admitting of the inability of knowing God does or does not exist (Reese, Dictionary of Philosophy and Religion. I thought I made that clear, but hopefully this will shed more light on what I meant. Thanks.
How does this assist in solving your dilemma? That is, how does your statement reduce or mitigate your question?
JAK
It does not, but it clarifies your assertion that I was confused in what I was saying.