Jason Bourne wrote:Nehor has not respponced to the comparison of Jacob 2 and D&C 132 which shows a clear contradiction so what is the point I wonder.
I also am curious as to Dr Peterson's comments I aksed on the idea that celestial marriage does in fact mean plural marriage.
Maybe he has departed this board for good.
I apologize for not responding. Let's see if I can make my thoughts clear here.
Jacob may have been wrong. Not a popular one but it should be stated.
I don't think that's the case though. Last time I read this I noticed something I hadn't before. Jacob is saying the people are excusing themselves in committing whoredoms because of what was written about David and Solomon. I just looked up whoredoms. The relevant definitions are:
1. Prostitution
2. Unlawful Sexual Relations
3. Promiscuous Sex
Then I checked out concubine which can mean both an inferior wife or a woman cohabitating with a husband or a member of a harem.
Nowhere does Jacob say he is talking to individuals married to more than one woman. They excuse themselves in committing whoredoms by saying that David and Solomon did. And they did. David stole Bathsheba and Solomon was a voluptuary (I still question the passages in the Old Testament praising them) and may or may not have married all his dalliances (I'm guessing not). In addition I doubt these were marriages because how could they sneak bigamy in? Jacob seems to be the religious head. I doubt Nephite dominion was so vast one generation in that other priests could be performing plural marriages without him knowing about it. It was a sacral state, there were probably no secular weddings.
If these people were not married than the passage makes much more sense. Men were sleeping around and justifying it by saying David and Solomon did it. Jacob comes out and says yes, they did have many wives and concubines (could mean mistresses). Then God said he hated what they were doing. God then told Jacob that this was not going to happen here. You WILL have one wife and no concubines (i.e. no sleeping around). Then in explanation in Verse 28 he personifies God and states that he does this because he delights in the chastity of women which seems to me like a further hint there were no marriages taking place. You can hardly accuse a man of being unchaste with his wife. Then in Verse 30 (still personifying God) he says that if I want anything but monogamy I will tell you. Until then, DO WHAT I SAY. Then he says that he will not put up with having to hear the prayers of his faithful daughters come up against their husbands. He'll destroy their nation first. Then he compares them to the 'savage' Lamanites where the spouses love each other and love their children contrasting that to the weeping women and children before him right then.
If he seems a little harsh and unclear I think we should look at the context. Everyone is at the Temple (presumably on a religous holiday) and he has just heard about cheating men. They come to the Temple and he sees the ones offended by these actions and also the men standing there as well....some probably ashamed but some smug in finding a loophole in their marriage to play the field a little. Jacob's job is to break them here. He has to drive home how serious it is to shake them out of their self-justification so he attacks their heroes as sinners (which they were) and says God is royally ticked off. The goal is to get them to break down and repent. In Chapter 3 he tries to console the offended.
I don't think this is just a speech on plural marriage it's a lesson on what men (and women) can do to their spouses and children when they cheat and how seriously God takes it. I could tell a tale or two of men and women in the Church who have committed whoredoms and other sins and justified it in flimsier fashion.