Sigh.
This same ground has been plowed and replowed so many times. I, personally, among others, have provided more than sufficient answers to them several times over the last few years--on ZLMB, FAIR/MAD, and, I believe, here.
Since those complete answers are accessible, I'll provide only summary versions below.
charity wrote:The claim has been made that the inclusion of 478 verses from Isaiah in the Book of Mormon demonstrates conclusively that Joseph Smith “plagiarized” the Book of Mormon.
1. This illustrates the lack of precise thinking on the part of the claimants. The passages in 2 Nephi quite clearly attribute the work to Isaiah. Plagiarism only occurs when the author copies, but does not give credit.
I'm inclined to more or less agree with your conclusion, while rejecting the argument you use for it.
I don't like the use of "plagiarism" for the use of the KJV in the Book of Mormon. I don't use the term, and wish others wouldn't either. Plagiarism is a legal and moral wrong of stealing someone else's work. I fail to see how the Book of Mormon's use of the KJV infringes either the legal or moral rights of the KJV translators.
However, your argument for the same or a similar conclusion is flawed. The Book of Mormon does use the King James--including many of its errors and idiosyncracies--and "does not give credit" to the King James translators for these readings. So, under the definition of plagiarism
you employ in this argument, you should regard the Book of Mormon biblical quotations as instances of "plagiarism."
2. Imprecise language does not change the basic nature of the claim, however. What about 478 verses from the KJV in the Book of Mormon?
Of the 478 verses, 201 are exactly as they appear in the KJV, or slightly over 42%. The rest are different in some way. For a full treatment of this concept you can go to
http://maxwellinstitute.BYU.edu/display ... ripts&id=2But let me give you a major point. A comparison was made of the 478 verses not only as they appear in the KJV and the Book of Mormon, but also the Hebrew Massoretic text (MT), the Hebrew scrolls found at Qumran (notably IQIsa, which contains all sixty-six chapters), the Aramaic Targumim (T), the Peshitta (P), the Septuagint (LXX) or Greek translation, the Old Latin (OL) and Vulgate (V),
In a significant number of instances, where there are differences, the differences in the Book of Mormon agree with these ancient texts. Was Joseph just guessing right?
The article is a fascinating read, but not for the faint hearted. If you still want to maintain that Joseph “plagiarized” the Book of Mormon, DON’T READ THIS!
A few points are in order here:
First, the KJV text, often
with its errors of translation and transmission, is contained in the Book of Mormon. Given that the KJV was completed in 1611, and that the arrow of time runs in only one direction, this means the Book of Mormon source for Isaiah (identified in the text as "the brass plates") dates to after that time. The reliance of the Book of Mormon on the KJV is an anachronism, and an anachronism just
is presumptive evidence that a reputedly ancient text is not what it claims to be.
Second, many of the changes in Book of Mormon Isaiah can be shown by the methods of textual criticism to be reactions to the KJV text, including the italicization of certain words, indicating that they were added by the translators. This is thoroughly documented by David P. Wright in his work on Isaiah in the Book of Mormon, work that is available in published form and, last I knew, online.
Third, while only about 2% of the words in KJV are italicized, these italicized portions are the locations of about 40% of the variations in Book of Mormon Isaiah. In other words, a word marked in the KJV text as translator-added is about
20 times more likely to be changed in the Book of Mormon than a word not so marked. This, again, shows the derivative nature of the Book of Mormon Isaiah text.
Fourth, many of the changes in Book of Mormon Isaiah solve problems occurring in the KJV text, and appear to have been intended to do so (
pace Wright). Given that many of the variants in ancient manuscripts also reflect apparent attempts to solve
the same problems in the text, it is unsurprising that there would be overlap in the variations produced by Smith and by ancient scribes.
Fifth, the parallel texts to Book of Mormon Isaiah in ancient manuscripts are nowhere near as systematic nor as detailed and idiosyncratic as those between Book of Mormon Isaiah and the KJV text.
Sixth, culling through any body of data--in this case
several ancient manuscript sources of Isaiah--will produce parallels and correspondences. Notably, however, only the "hits" are enumerated by those making this comparison. Places where Book of Mormon Isaiah
clashes with all these ancient texts--and matches the erroneous KJV text--are simply ignored.
Seventh, if it is to be argued that the Book of Mormon Isaiah text derives from an independent, ancient source, then it is puzzling that this ancient source contains the errors of the King James translators.
Parallels to ancient texts of the sort adduced by Tvedtnes and others is of vanishingly little significance compared to anachronisms and evidence of
dependence on a modern text.
3. For those who persist in the face of undeniable evidence, there is still the question of how Joseph could have accomplished it. If you still claim he copied pages from the KJV, just how did he do it in front of witnesses without them knowing? As anti’s love to point out, Joseph had his face in a hat. That also means there was no room for pages to read from, and no light to read them if there had been.
So did he memorize all 478 verses with the corrections of the ancients texts? Did he then dictate from memory? You have to account for the fact that when he returned from a break to chop wood, or go to the outhouse, or eat lunch, he started right where he had left off without prompts.
This is just silly. Show me
any account where the scribe for Book of Mormon Isaiah--Oliver Cowdery--says that Joseph Smith did not employ a King James Bible for these portions of the text, or that Smith
always and only used the seerstone? Since Cowdery is the only one known to have been present for this portion of the dictation, only his testimony would specifically relate to whether a Bible was used at this time. You have no testimony that Smith didn't employ a Bible for the biblical portions of the Book of Mormon. So quit pretending you do.
The evidence that Smith
did employ a King James Bible here is overwhelming, and requires no testimony whatsoever. That evidence is
the text itself. The facts that Book of Mormon Isaiah perpetuates many erroneous and idiosyncratic translations from the KJV, and errors of transmission based, not on "the brass plates," but on the manuscripts from which the KJV was based, and that it reacts to features of the KJV not present in the Hebrew (e.g., the
italics)
shows it to be derivative from the KJV.
The case of Book of Mormon use of the KJV is like that of a man whose fingerprints are found all over a crime scene. It really doesn't matter whether his friends testify that he didn't go to that location. He has left traces that tell a much more reliable story.
The linguistic fingerprints of the KJV are all over the Book of Mormon text of Isaiah. If all the witnesses to the translation process
had said Joseph Smith didn't use a Bible for this portion of the dictation (as
none of them in fact did[/i], it would make no difference.
The text itself is the best evidence of its origin.That’s enough for you all to chew on for now.
Or at least it's enough for you and many other apologists, who've been chewing the same cud for years, blissfully, if willfully, ignorant that it was shown to be rotten years ago.
Don