rcrocket wrote:Black Moclips wrote:This is rather commical to watch. Non-historians, pretending to be historians, telling other non-historians how historians should operate and what historians view as good evidence. Is it a surprise to anyone that no source will be good enough? Its obvious to the normal, rational mind than its more likely than not that Joseph Smith married and had sex with some or all of his wives.
So, you find it acceptable to base your opinion upon no evidence at all, at least with respect to women who were married to other men?
What evidence would you consider acceptable?
From a legal viewpoint, are a man and woman who are married presumed to have consummated the marriage in the absence of evidence to the contrary?