by the way, here's an analysis of the Kinsey stats:
http://www.pedrotytgat.be/homoseksualit ... _scale.htm
8 percent of the males who belong to the group that goes into high school but not beyond, 59 percent of the grade school level, and 47 percent of the college level have had homosexual experience to the point of orgasm if they remain single to the age of 35. 13 percent of males react erotically to other males without having overt homosexual contacts after the onset of adolescence. (This 13 percent, coupled with the 37 percent who do have overt homosexual experience, means that a full 50 percent of males have at least some sexual response to other males after adolescence -- and conversely, that only the other 50 percent of the male population is entirely heterosexual throughout life.)
25 percent of the male population has more than incidental homosexual experience or reactions (i.e. rates 2-6) for at least three years between the ages of 16 and 55.
18 percent of males have at least as much homosexual as heterosexual in their histories (i.e. rate 3-6) for at least three years between the ages of 16 and 55.
13 percent of the male population has more homosexual than heterosexual experience (i.e. rates 4-6) for at least three years between the ages of 16 and 55.
8 percent of males are exclusively homosexual (i.e. rate 6) for at least three years between the ages of 16 and 55.
4 percent of males are exclusively homosexual throughout their lives after the onset of adolescence.
Here, as elsewhere, data concerning homosexuality is cited for males rather than females, not out of "male bias" but mainly because equivalent female data often cannot be understood without extensive additional explanation. Orgasm, for instance, is fundamental to virtually all overt male sexuality, while with females, psychological arousal, overt sexual action, and actual orgasm are often disconcertingly apart. In fact, orgasm is reached in only about half of female homosexual contacts (and in a still smaller portion of female heterosexual contacts).
Moreover, female sexuality tends to be far more pliant, and thus more changeable, than equivalent male responses. Thus while the sexual revolution made no appreciable change in the male percentages mentioned above, certain changes in female responses, especially regarding homosexual try-outs, have been noted subsequent to Kinsey's 1953 findings. The reasons for these and a host of other complex matters in both male and female sexuality continue to intrigue sex researchers, and continue to validate the Kinsey 0-6 scale as a much needed and appreciated measuring and descriptive device.
Of course, it is possible that the population pool Kinsey used for his studied tainted the results. But working with this, it would appear that 4% of males are "strictly homosexual". 50% of males appear to be strictly heterosexual. The others are in-between on the Kinsey scale and could, in my opinion, possibly be influenced by environment and culture.
The question is: so what? Does that mean something "bad"? Of course I know it does to conservative Christians, but outside the god question, does it mean something "bad"? Is it "bad" for a culture/environment to influence bisexuals towards homosexuality, but "good" for a culture/environment to influence bisexuals towards heterosexuality?