A rather strong point against the Book of Mormon, from Joseph Smith ...

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_Chap
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Post by _Chap »

Who Knows wrote: I have no earthly idea how bcspace can say what he's saying with a straight face.


The interesting thing about talking to TBMs on such topics is that they DO say such things with a straight face.

The interesting question is, then, what is going on behind that face?

What is it like to be inside the kind of consciousness that can talk that way, and do so with deep seriousness?
_bcspace
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Post by _bcspace »

So Smith knows of only two races that have inhabited the country before his time.


How does that preclude the existence of others?

Those responsible for the 'first settlement' were the Jaredites, who were eventually destroyed. The rest were clearly (following the Book of Mormon) the descendants of Nephi's party, whose 'principal nation' (from the Book of Mormon , the Nephites) were wiped out by (from the Book of Mormon) the other nation, the Lamanites, at which point, as the Book of Mormon tells us, consistent with the angel's account, "the blessings of God [were] finally withdrawn from them as a people". The Lamanite 'remnant' are the Indians.


The context of the first settlement is only that the the Book of Mormon peoples. Again, other inhabitants not precluded.

I just don't see:

(a) Where the doubt comes from about the Jaredites being the first people in America.


What about pre-flood (local or global)? That alone provides context that destroys your argument.

Heck, it was the Jaredites who were, according to Smith, responsible for the 'first settlement'. He had two sources for that fact, one the Book of Mormon and the other the account by the angel, which included, he says information on the origins of the aborigines.


Those particular aborigines yes.

There is no sign that Smith felt his sources were inconsistent - which would have been very remarkable, given the almost certain identification of the angel with Moroni, the last premodern person to possess and read the Book of Mormon.


Non sequitur

(b) Why bcspace would find uncongenial the very obvious conclusion that Smith believed and stated that the Jaredites were the first people in America.


What if he did? How does that preclude the existence of others? Neither the Book of Mormon, Joseph Smith, or the angel state anything of that kind.
Machina Sublime
Satan's Plan Deconstructed.
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Conservatism is the Gospel of Christ and the Plan of Salvation in Action.
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_Chap
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Post by _Chap »

bcspace's response is so weak and quibbling as to be hardly worth a reply.

Smith says that in the Book of Mormon:

the history of ancient America is unfolded, from its first settlement by a colony that came from the Tower of Babel, at the confusion of languages to the beginning of the fifth century of the Christian Era.


and bcspace wants to suggest that this leaves room for other people to have been in ancient America before the colony from the Tower of Babel, who are (he does not dispute) the Jaredites.

Apparently, if Smith does not say something like "Course, there weren't no others in this here country before the first settlement", it leaves the way open to vast rafts of humanity to have been pouring in for millennia!

I am trying to think of a way that someone can make an argument like that without either being in bad faith or suffering from a state of mental confusion. Can't do it. Charity therefore forbids further comment.
_cksalmon
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Post by _cksalmon »

Chap wrote:I am trying to think of a way that someone can make an argument like that without either being in bad faith or suffering from a state of mental confusion. Can't do it. Charity therefore forbids further comment.


...

Smith believed and stated that the Jaredites were the first people in America.

What if he did? How does that preclude the existence of others? Neither the Book of Mormon, Joseph Smith, or the angel state anything of that kind.


If I tried seriously to reconcile these two posts I think my head would explode.

Chris

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_bcspace
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Post by _bcspace »

bcspace's response is so weak and quibbling as to be hardly worth a reply.

Smith says that in the Book of Mormon:

the history of ancient America is unfolded, from its first settlement by a colony that came from the Tower of Babel, at the confusion of languages to the beginning of the fifth century of the Christian Era.


chap knows that under LDS belief there are likely peoples on the American continent pre flood which dates of occupation are supported by science. chap also knows that "first settlement", whose context is after the flood, does not preclude any others from having come over. So, local or global flood, there is nothing chap has quoted that makes his hypothesis come true.

Apparently, if Smith does not say something like "Course, there weren't no others in this here country before the first settlement", it leaves the way open to vast rafts of humanity to have been pouring in for millennia!


Joseph Smith said nothing to preclude it. Any scientist worth his salt knows that no evidence for is not evidence against. Therefore, while chap may cling to his hypothesis all he wants, to be intellecually honest he must admit other possibilites as well.

I am trying to think of a way that someone can make an argument like that without either being in bad faith or suffering from a state of mental confusion. Can't do it. Charity therefore forbids further comment.


Notice that chap also avoids addressing my response to his other argument about the languages. He has so hinged everything on his hypothesis that he cannot afford to see the other possibilites. In that respect, his position is not unlike that of the medieval Catholic church arguing for an earth centered universe.
Machina Sublime
Satan's Plan Deconstructed.
Your Best Resource On Joseph Smith's Polygamy.
Conservatism is the Gospel of Christ and the Plan of Salvation in Action.
The Degeneracy Of Progressivism.
_bcspace
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Post by _bcspace »

Smith believed and stated that the Jaredites were the first people in America.

What if he did? How does that preclude the existence of others? Neither the Book of Mormon, Joseph Smith, or the angel state anything of that kind.

If I tried seriously to reconcile these two posts I think my head would explode.


The problem is that you are not considering all the evidence. Where did Joseph Smith believe Adam-ondi-Ahman was? The answer shows that the context of any statement by Joseph Smith that the Jaredites were the first is the first after the flood or the tower.

If the flood was local, there easily could have been people here already when the Jaredites arrived. If the flood was global, what's to prevent other peoples from comming here after the Jaredites? Now I think Joseph Smith believed the flood was global, but in either case you're sunk.
Machina Sublime
Satan's Plan Deconstructed.
Your Best Resource On Joseph Smith's Polygamy.
Conservatism is the Gospel of Christ and the Plan of Salvation in Action.
The Degeneracy Of Progressivism.
_cksalmon
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Post by _cksalmon »

bcspace wrote:
Apparently, if Smith does not say something like "Course, there weren't no others in this here country before the first settlement", it leaves the way open to vast rafts of humanity to have been pouring in for millennia!


Joseph Smith said nothing to preclude it.


Hi bc--

Yes, he patently did. The Jaredites being the first settlers precludes the possibility of there being earlier settlers, first being the ordinal number answering to the number one is a series.

This is so utterly and plainly obvious that it boggles the imagination that you can state (not argue, which you haven't done) that "first settlers" doesn't preclude the possibility of settlers "before first."

But, hey, I give up. There really isn't much point in arguing strenuously in defense of self-evident facts. They can handle their own business.

Chris
_bcspace
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Post by _bcspace »

Yes, he patently did.


He most assuredly did not. Examine the context closely....

In this important and interesting book the history of ancient America is unfolded, from its first settlement by a colony that came from the Tower of Babel, at the confusion of languages to the beginning of the fifth century of the Christian Era.


It is the first settlement mentioned in this book. Too broad for chap's hypothesis already

In addition, what is the context of this first settlement? After the flood/tower. If the flood was local (I tend to hold to that view) and Joseph Smith believed that Adam - ondi - Ahman was on this continent, there is nothing to preclude others being on this continent prior. It is not contradictory because of the context (the Book of Mormon).

If the flood were global, same. Joseph Smith already believed there were inhabitants here for the Jaredites and you still have yet to answer what precludes other peoples from comming over here after the Jaredites or even before since the context is the Book of Mormon?
Machina Sublime
Satan's Plan Deconstructed.
Your Best Resource On Joseph Smith's Polygamy.
Conservatism is the Gospel of Christ and the Plan of Salvation in Action.
The Degeneracy Of Progressivism.
_beastie
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Post by _beastie »

Oh, for heaven's sake, bc.

In this important and interesting book the history of ancient America is unfolded, from its first settlement by a colony that came from the Tower of Babel, at the confusion of languages to the beginning of the fifth century of the Christian Era.


The "its first settlement" clearly refers to "the history of ancient America". Geez Louise.
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_Chap
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Post by _Chap »

I agree with cksalmon that arguing against nonsense ("there might have been settlers before the first settlers") is to dignify it with a degree of attention it does not deserve.

I observe with interest, however, the elements in bcspace's posts that seem to depend on the assumption that everything in a lifetime of varied (and many would say ad hoc) utterance by Smith is consistent with everything else. That takes faith.

I am content to demand no more than that the Wentworth letter is self-consistent, and means what it says about the story told in the Book of Mormon, which it explicitly purports to describe.
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