touché on the Benjamin F. Johnson source, Roger! I was wondering if you'd locate it. This is the sole source of which I'm aware that claims there were rumors of Joseph Smith and Fanny Alger's relationship before Fanny was booted from the house.
I'll acknowledge that it is evidence of that. I would, however, question the quality of the evidence.
Hmmm. Seems like trying to have it both ways.

At the time of writing, Benjamin F. Johnson was then in his mid-80s recalling a period some 68 years earlier, when he was a teenager. All of the relevant sources reporting a marriage are closer to the event than this. Yet you reject those as motivated and contaminated.
When have you seen me reject anything as being "motivated and contaminated? You're assuming too much.
I have sources, from the 1830s, showing that Kirtland residents and members of the church were not aware of and not responding to the Fanny Alger relationship until late 1836 and 1837--after the relationship's discovery by Emma; so, while I take Benjamin F. Johnson as a useful source, I see little reason to trust that he correctly recalled 68 years later that he heard the rumors before then.
I don't doubt that you do "have sources" but as this discussion clearly illustrates, this whole topic is full of contradicting sources. I think it is reasonable to conclude something was going on between Joseph and Fanny in 1835. You acknowledge that Hancock puts them together as early as 1833.
by the way, it will probably come as no surprise to you that I take exception to your claim that "polygamy" is a "generic" term. There's nothing generic about it, except that it doesn't specify multiple wives or multiple husbands, only multiple marriages. The word meant just that in Joseph Smith's day:polygamy
POLYG'AMY, n. [Gr. many, and marriage.] A plurality of wives or husbands at the same time; or the having of such plurality. When a man has more wives than one, or a woman more husbands than one, at the same time, the offender is punishable for polygamy.
(Webster's Dictionary, 1st edition, 1828)
"Polygamy" simply means "many marriages,", as everyone knows and the word itself shows. So the 1835 statement responds to an incident that was understood to be one of simultaneous marriages. If you disagree with that, take it up with the authors of the statement, who chose a word they knew referred to just that.
Unlike you, I have no reason to doubt that they meant what they said, and I will no longer argue for the self-evident--that "polygamy" refers to multiple marriages. If you want to make it not really mean that in this case, good luck with that. You'll need it!
My Best,
Don
I'm not following you here. Since when have I ever disupted the meaning of the word "polygamy"? All I am saying is you can't point to any specific case of either polygamy or fornication as being the motivation behind D & C 101. Neither can I. All I am saying is I think it is reasonable (probably more reasonable) to conclude that that article is in response to "the suspicion or knowledge of the Prophet's plural relation" than to some unnamed incident(s), although
"at the time there was little said publicly on the subject."
Of course the article is generic--you yourself admit that polygamy means "many marriages." Which "many marriages" is the article refering to? You don't know. Neither do I, but I can at least point to Joseph Smith as the most likely candidate and base that conclusion on testimony from people who were there at the time.
All the best,
Roger