stemelbow wrote:Buffalo wrote:Again, how does "loose translation" become "exactly copy of a spurious passage from Mark"?
Hey Buffalo, I"m not sure what else you're looking for. You think since the passage in question was something that was "forged" it couldn't have been written by Moroni. I say, "cool. There is possibility that it wasn't written as represented in English, per se." You then repeat your claim implying "it seems that there is no way God would have used a common scripture in Joseph Smith' time as a replacement for the words of Moroni". I say, "I think God would use commonly known scripture, particularly if that scripture represented the exact thought He had in mind". You seem to dislike my reply and wish for me to repeat my argument, time and time again. I don't see the point.
The reason, which is a legitimate one in my mind, that the passage from Mark is found in the Book of Mormon is that God Himself used the KJV rendition of a common passage of scripture which taught a true principle. I know you don't like that explanation. It seems your questions will repeat and repeat because you don't like the explanation. I see the explanation as completely reasonable.
Okay, so we agree it must have been intentional. God, for whatever reason, decided to copy something from one of those unauthorized scribes that were demonized earlier in the Book of Mormon for making changes to the Bible.
What purpose is served by copying the forgery, other than undermining the credibility of the Book of Mormon? Is God actively trying to get people not to believe in it? I guess that would explain a lot.