Hmm. Usual Tobin response: no case, abuse the plaintiff's attorney ...
This man does not play straight. Here is our exchange on the first point:
Chap wrote:Instead it is written in a language that I can only describe as a transparently inexpert attempt to imitate the kind of English found in the King James Bible, an attempt made by someone who does not properly understand how the grammar of early 17th century English actually worked.
Tobin wrote:I didn't know that was a requirement for something to be considered inspired or not. That is a fascinating position to take. So if God spoke to us today, he'd have to use "correct" early 17th century English to speak with us.
Chap wrote:If there is deity who chooses to address us in human speech or writing, we are of course in no position to say what language he might choose for that purpose. But I seem to recall that you have from time to time on this board shown that you felt that it is possible to apply human reason in deciding what your deity is or is not likely to have done. Do you think it likely that if he communicated in a human language, he would do so incorrectly and imperfectly, so it looked as if he was attempting to address us in Putonghua, or Akkadian, or Old Mon, or a conservative version of early 17th century English - but somehow failed to get the grammar and vocabulary quite right?
Tobin wrote:And if God had presented the Book of Mormon all translated and ready for publishing in a nice box with a bow on top, not on doilies though - I hate that crap, I would agree. But that isn't the case here. God worked through a very flawed human being to produce the Book of Mormon instead. And before you give me some mumbo-jumbo about Joseph Smith being God's sock puppet and therefore it should have been perfect, NO - since when has man ever been God's sock puppet.
Notice how it goes:
1. I point out that far from being in Joseph Smith's habitual speech, the Book of Mormon is in pseudo-"Bible talk".
2. Tobin implies that he does not think that is an argument against the text being one that 'God spoke'.
3. I counter that point by saying that it seems odd that if 'God spoke' in a language of his choice, he would get grammar wrong.
4. Tobin jumps to another position, abandoning the position in (2) without actually saying so, and resorts to the 'working through an imperfect man' ploy.
The rest of his post is basically enraged burbling. If anyone thinks Tobin's post has anything in it that deserves an answer from me, will they let me know?