Noticed on MDD:
http://www.mormondialogue.org/topic/582 ... ge__st__40JNclone, on 07 July 2012 - 11:25 AM, said:
JNClone wrote:And no suggestion was made during the talk of how this mystery is to be solved?
Schryver wrote:No. That's why it is a "mystery."
JNClone wrote:Skousen concludes that article by saying:
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"These new findings argue that Joseph Smith was not the author of the English-language translation of the Book of Mormon. Not only was the text revealed to him word for word, but the words themselves sometimes had meanings that he and his scribes would not have known, which occasionally led to misinterpretation. The Book of Mormon is not a 19th-century text, nor is it Joseph Smith's. The English-language text was revealed through him, but it was not precisely in his language or ours."
Did no-one in the audience of Skousen's talk ask the obvious question - who, then DID produce the translation that was delivered to Joseph Smith?
Schryver wrote:No one asked that question. But I have. Royal and I have also discussed this question, and I have some ideas about its possible answer: that the work of translation was very likely delegated (consistent with our understanding of the economy of God) to those who produced the original work (Mormon, Moroni, Alma, etc.). To me, this makes complete sense. As regards these angelic ministrants, we are told:
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Angels are personages who minister for the Lord in carrying out his work. Joseph Smith taught that all angels who minister to the earth are “Those who belong to it or have belonged to it.”
Robert F. Smith then comments:
Even though he was not explicit about it, I thought that Skousen was suggesting that God himself was the source of the translation. Particularly since he said that the complex non-English "if . . . and" conditional sentence constructions in the Book of Mormon was a "sign from God."
More from Schryver:
Bob:
Royal and I have talked about this quite a bit, and I am fairly confident that this is not what he thinks. My impression from him is that his thoughts on the issue are more or less similar to what I have described above: that the work of translation was delegated to what we would characterize as "ministering angels." That said, he would, I am certain, attach the word "speculative" to any thesis he might propose in relation to these questions.
In any event, I'll run the question by him, and then I'll make another post later this evening with his response, if he has one.
Robert F. Smith:
Interesting though that an angelic go-between might theoretically provide the actual very archaic words. In such a case, the effect would be the same as if God himself had provided the words not otherwise available to Joseph.
Schryver:
I fully agree that the implications tend toward the conclusion of divine intent.
But why that particular era in the evolution of the English language? Perhaps there is a connection to another event taking place at roughly the same time: the translation of the King James Version of the Bible. It has also been suggested by some that the King James translators were the recipients of divine inspiration.
Garbo's account seems to agree with all this to some extent - though there are some contradictions still.
There does not seem to be any continuation of the thread so far (apart from stuff about organ playing).