Why publish within an official chronology a specific date if the story is meant to be figurative?
Especially without adding some kind of caveat stating that the date published is not meant to be taken literally.
I have said nothing about the date. Imho, the Church, if it does use the 4004 BC date for the Fall at all (notice that the Bible Dictionary is not doctrine according to it's own introduction), is merely adopting standard christian doctrine in lieu of any specific revelation which I don't think is an unreasonable thing to do at all.
Also, here is a link to the Gospel Principles manual chapter covering the fall of Adam within which it teaches about the Garden of Eden etc.
Can you show me where it's made clear that this is not a literal story but meant Old Testament be taken figuratively?
http://www.LDS.org/manual/gospel-princi ... e?lang=eng
I don't understand what the problem is. I do notice that it essentially confirms what I've said about 2 Nephi 2 (no application of the state of no death to the creative state prior to the finished creation and the Garden) but what do you think should be figurative and how does it conflict?
Here is Mark E Peterson (as published by the Church, thereby making it an official position) not only making it clear that Adam & Eve were real, but that the Garden of eden is an actual place.
I think those are a couple of good examples of what must be historical about the account. I believe Adam and Eve were real people and that the Garden was a real place and that the reality of neither is in conflict with evolution. The human race DID begin there because it was there that either an uplift took place, or spirit children of God began to be born, or whatever is your hypothesis as to how modern big brained homo sapiens, after many hundreds of thousands of years, suddenly began to make civilizations and worship and have knowledge of the true God etc.
Perhaps even the ancient Greeks knew it as the Garden of the Hesperides. Where did they say it was located? In the "far west". Not that the Greeks are a source of doctrine but it is interesting that they would say that and how the stories of that garden seem to revolve around the actual Biblical tale but from the perspective of Satan and Cain's descendents.
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Please enlighten us, neglectable entities, what part of the official publications are, and what part of them are not describe the doctrine? What sieve or sifter should we use, beyond Your words?
Everything published (and not merely sponsored) by the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints and of latest date is official doctrine unless stated otherwise. So, for example, the LDS Bible Dictionary is published by the Church but it's introduction says it's not to be used for doctrine. Therefore, the doctrine is that the LDS Bible Dictionary isn't doctrine.
I daren't ask, what is the status of certain publications, which were - but no more are - official. (for example predecessors of Ensign, for example the Journal of Discourses, for example many papers which are mere personal opinions of seers and revelators today)
Never were doctrine in the first place.
Wouldn't it be more easy an existing book (on paper or in electronic form...) called "Mormon Doctrine" - or with whatever title - consisting the truth and only the truth and nothing but the truth? Do I demand too much?
BRM's work came closest to that but was rejected for too much personal opinion. But there is much good doctrine in it so it is quoted from time to time in official doctrinal works. Therefore those particular specific quotes are doctrine.
However, the Church does have a curriculum and magazines that it does publish every year.
by the way the great and abominable church - in other words the great whore of all the earth - has that feature. Here to found.
They call it catechism ( pron.: /ˈkætəkɪzəm/; Ancient Greek: κατηχισμός from kata = "down" + echein = "to sound", literally "to sound down" into the ears, is a summary or exposition of doctrine )
Many churches have systematic doctrines. No big deal.