Brad:
Who witnessed the copying? If they did witness the copying, would that have been so important to them that they would volunteer it? In my opinion, concluding that these individuals intentionally lied by omission based on the what you've presented is unjustified.
Perhaps. But there's more to consider. In previous discussions, marg and Uncle Dale presented good reasons to suspect Emma Smith and Oliver Cowdery of lying. I also pointed to David Whitmer's changing stories. I think witness credibility is an issue here.
A problem that I see as unavoidable is that you want to consider all this in the absence of God being a part of the process, but virtually every early Mormon witness claims that God was indeed a crucial part of the process. How do we deal with that? Since you want to exclude the God factor, I think it is up to you to explain how you are going to get around that? When virtually every early Mormon witness tells us that God did this, or God did that, on what basis are you going to reject that, and, more importantly, on what basis are you going to accept anything else they claim?
Based on what we've discussed, I think intentional lying by omission is less plausible than other possible explanations.
Fair enough. Tell me why.
Some of these witnesses turned hostile toward Smith, yet none accused him of copying from the Bible.
So because they never publicly went back on their Book of Mormon testimony I should believe their testimony?
What good would ratting out Smith have served them? Would it have been in their interest, after their deep involvement in Mormonism to have come clean in front of the world because they have disagreements with Joseph Smith? And if they did, would they have reason to fear for their lives?
In general, the more people that have to be complicit in intentional lying, the harder it is to keep the lie secret.
Are Warren Jeffs, Jim Jones and David Koresh's followers willing to lie for them? Or are they simply deluded enough to convince themselves they're not lying? I believe that a cult-like devotion and peer pressure was operating among early Mormons.
At this point, I find several potential explanations more plausible:
1. No one said anything about the Bible because no one asked the witnesses. (I haven't independently investigated whether that is the case.)
This is Dan Vogel's position. I think it's weak. So let's assume you're right. How would they have responded if someone had asked them about a Bible?
2. No one volunteered information about use of the Bible because they didn't feel it was important. (What you describe as Vogel's theory)
Apparently smart people are willing to accept this. I find it much weaker than to believe they did not mention a Bible because they knew it would have conflicted with their testimony that God was providing the Book of Mormon word for word and even checking for errors.
3. No one witnessed the copying of Isaiah other than Smith and the scribe at the time of the copying.
Smith hardly gave any details. This makes him suspect in my mind. The scribe was likely Cowdery. So at the very least, you have
some Book of Mormon material that is not being produced in the way the witnesses unanimously claimed it was being produced. It comes down to how do we explain that? You and Vogel think we explain that by saying it was not a big deal to the otherwise credible witnesses and no one ever asked. I explain it by saying they were devoted to Smith and highly invested in the cause of Mormonism. Maybe they convinced themselves the whole thing was of God, maybe not. Either way, they lied by omission.
How do we decide which version is best supported by the evidence? If marg and I can provide rational reasons why it sure looks like Emma and Oliver and David lied in other situations would that make any difference?
Roger wrote:marg wrote:But if all we care about is whether they likely had the KJB on hand and we've already said they likely did for the Isaiah..then there is little reason to assume it wasn't on hand for other passages as well.
Agreed. This logically follows. And in light of this, it is much more likely that the rest of vessr's parallels also represent borrowing, whether direct or indirect. Once we've established that a Bible was used for at least some of the text, then the burden shifts to one of demonstrating why these other parallels are not examples of what we've already established.
Brad wrote:Not agreed. There is no justification for a shift in the burden of proof. First, there is a substantial difference between copying, as was done with Isaiah, and duplication of word order in the two books. The former requires at least one witness other than Smith (unless the Original Manuscript of the relevant sections of 2 Nephi are in Smith's handwriting). The latter could be done entirely by Smith without any witnesses.
I disagree with your "not agreed." ; ) There is justification for the shift in burden. We've just established (by agreement) that some of the Book of Mormon was produced in a manner
not supported by any witness from which we are getting this whole story. I would argue that it's not only
not supported, but that it
contradicts the strong implications of their testimony. I realize you and Dan disagree, but you're wrong. : ) So the question is, who is right? We can't proceed happily from this point unless one of us caves. We can agree to disagree, but the entire outcome is going to depend on how we view the motivation and credibility of these witnesses.
marg and I agree. Once we've established that a method was used that is not supported by the witnesses, then items which otherwise could be viewed as either a product of chance or borrowing must be viewed in light of the fact that we've already established that borrowing took place.
Vessr's parallels could easily be the product of Smith attempting to recite or summarize passages he'd studied on his own.
So what? Either way, Smith is borrowing material.
Second, even if Smith copied a certain percentage of text from the Bible, there is still a baseline of duplicate word order that we would expect to see in the absence of copying. You haven't attempted to estimate or eliminate chance.
We eliminated chance when we agreed that definite borrowing took place in some instances. Whether other instances are chance or not is somewhat irrelevant.
The best example of this so far is Vessr's "puffed up" parallel. The person proposing borrowing as a hypothesis retains the burden of proof that the duplication is due to "borrowing" as opposed to chance.
We'll sacrifice vessr's "puffed up" parallel to make you happy. : )
All the best.
"...a pious lie, you know, has a great deal more influence with an ignorant people than a profane one."
- Sidney Rigdon, as quoted in the Quincy Whig, June 8, 1839, vol 2 #6.