Runtu wrote:The Vermont Study showed that 21% of gay adults married in the study's time period, while 14% of single heterosexual adults married, meaning that gay couples were half again as likely to marry than their straight counterparts. This data solidly refutes the FRC's conclusions.
Had I quoted the 14% figure in my post, then you may have a point. Whereas, if the Vermont study accurately show that less then 29% of homosexuals enter legalized relationships (as I claimed in my post), then the citation is not problematic for the purpose for which I used it. It is valid support for the specific claim I made.
This is all that I am attempting to demonstrate at this point. Once I have done so, we can look at alleged internal problems with the FRC source.
Can you tell me what percentage of single adult heterosexuals entered into marriage during that time and how that compares? If Vermont and Sweden are indicative, the rates among gays and heterosexuals are likely to be similar.
Were I to have cited the various sources in support of a comparative claim, rather than to substantiate a specific statistical claim about the number of legalized same-sex relationship, then your question may be pertinent at this time.
And as a regular reader of National Review, I recognize they aren't exactly an unbiased source.
If the issue currently under discussion was the lack or existence of bias, rather than the accuracy of my specific claims and the data supporting the claim, then your recognition may be pertinent.
Again, Wade, you are not using comparable statistics.
The issue, at this point, isn't whether the statistics are comparable (that is yet open to future debate), but whether my specific claims, and associated citation, were correct.
If you're going to do a comparison, you need to find statistics that measure comparable aspects of gay and heterosexual relationships. These don't.
We'll see.
Even if I accept your flawed comparison, a 4% difference is an indicator that gay people don't really want to get married, so they shouldn't be given the opportunity?
If my blog argued that same-sex couples shouldn't be given the opportunity to marry, let alone for the reason that gay people may not want to get married, then your question may have relevance.
As I've shown, when given the opportunity, the marriage rate among gay couples is higher than that of heterosexuals. All you've shown here is that, even given the current legal status of same-sex marriage in almost every state, gay couples are still motivated to engage in committed relationships in only slightly lower rates than heterosexuals who have no such legal barriers. Do you really think this shows a marked difference in the desire of gay couples to legalize their relationships? Surely, you can see that your claim isn't holding up well at all.
Once again, at this point in the discussion, what is at issue is whether certain specific claims of mine, and the citations associated therewith, are accurate or not.
When this is confirmed, I will be happy to move forward and examine alleged conclusions and comparisons.
You can save some time by stipulating to the accuracy of my claims and that my sources weren't problematic for the specific purpose for which they were cited.
Thanks, -Wade Englund-