Abaddon wrote:If I recall, Joseph Smith started writing JS-H in 1839. Putting on my Mormon hat, that's plenty of time to get familiar with the Bible and recognize the scriptures and context of what Moroni was telling him in his room years earlier.
I get what you are saying here, Abaddon, and, yes, one could always argue that Joseph Smith embellished his familiarity with the Bible after the fact. However, the 1832 account of the First Vision suggests one really doesn't have to suppose that he was unfamiliar with that material in 1823.
Abaddon wrote:Obviously, I believe Joseph Smith was making it all up, but I think this thread about John Gee is a bit of a stretch; he never said Joseph Smith didn't read any of the Bible prior to translation, he implied and by his references to Lucy Macks history, it's clear he meant Joseph Smith didn't read the Bible cover to cover.
Hence, I think this thread is much ado about nothing...
I don't think it is a stretch or much ado about nothing. First, the "to do" is about Gee distorting history in an attempt to make the Maxwell Institute, his employer, look bad. He is saying that the Journal of Book of Mormon Studies publishes anti-Mormon writings in order to stir up antipathy for the people working there. Much ado about nothing? Hardly.
On the point of this being a stretch, it really isn't. Granted, Gee does quote Lucy Mack Smith's statement about Joseph not reading the Bible through, but then look at how he summarizes her statement:
John Gee wrote:Joseph Smith had not read the Bible and was not inclined to read much anyway.
Gee is happy to invest all kinds of time in this bogus argument as though precision were required, but, when it comes to his own rhetoric, he is anything but precise. And he is imprecise exactly in the way that best suits his bogus argument to the effect that Joseph Smith was ignorant of the Bible. Nowhere does Gee quote the 1832 account. Why not? Because he knows that it completely destroys the false impression he is constructing.
If one considers Joseph Smith's 1832 account in assessing the question of his biblical literacy, then it becomes difficult to see how this could be true:
John Gee wrote:Joseph Smith seems to have first systematically read the Bible when he was doing his own translation.
And certainly not this:
John Gee wrote:So Joseph Smith never read the Bible before he translated the Book of Mormon, did not even own one, and was ignorant of it.
This statement represents all kinds fudging in a context where a responsible scholar should not fudge. A more honest assessment would perhaps read like this:
Joseph Smith was perhaps less biblically literate than some of his family and peers, and was certainly not known for his mastery of Bible. Nevertheless, the evidence shows that he read the Bible seriously in the years leading up to his First Vision, and maybe after. Although he did not own his own Bible before 1829, he had access to his family's Bible. We can be confident in stating, however, that Joseph Smith was certainly not ignorant of the Bible.
Despite the fact that Joseph Smith was biblically aware, the idea that he had a close knowledge of the Apocrypha is debatable to the point of being doubtful. For this reason and others, I disagree with Owen's argument.
That is all Gee really needs to do. The fact that he ignores evidence and rhetorically fudges to the extent that he does is actually a big deal. The man was trained as an historian at one of our country's premier institutions of higher learning. He should know better.
"Petition wasn’t meant to start a witch hunt as I’ve said 6000 times." ~ Hanna Seariac, LDS apologist