Thanks for the comments, Manetho.
Manetho wrote: ↑Wed Dec 15, 2021 5:44 pm
Every time supporting evidence is given to you, you reject it based on Carrier's contrived efforts to explain it away.
I don't think so. But I suppose at some point we have to disagree on methodology if we're arriving at different conclusions.
Josephus didn't actually write about James the brother of Jesus-who-was-called-Messiah.
There is a solid case made to say Josephus didn't actually write "who was called Messiah" and think it was something added later, by Christian handlers. I can't help that. Many scholars agree with that.
Instead, he wrote about James the brother of Jesus-the-son-of-Damneus, but some Christian copyist inserted the phrase "who was called Messiah" in the margins, even though Christians rarely used the phrase "was called Messiah" for Jesus (preferring, like the Christian interpolator who inserted or altered the Testimonium Flavianum, to baldly assert that Jesus was the Messiah). And then somebody else saw "son of Damneus" appearing twice in the passage, thought it was a dittography, and deleted the first occurrence and inserted the marginal note in its place. Yes, that's far more logical than assuming that Josephus's text means what it seems to mean,
That's not really the
only case to be made on the brief line from Josephus, of course. That you seem to dismiss the possibility that a copier could have added the note about the Christ, when it simply doesn't fit the context, hardly means it's not worth considering.
Here's more in case it was missed previously:
This James passage was unknown to Origen (despite his explicit search of Josephus for Jesus material in his answer to Celsus). All claims to the contrary until now have been mistaken on that point.
Because in fact, it’s objectively evident that Origen mistook a story about James in Hegesippus as being in Josephus (a kind of mistake I document Origen sometimes made).
All other accounts of the death of James the brother of Jesus do not match this one in Josephus; they therefore had no knowledge of this passage being about the Christian James (Eusebius is the first author to ever think so; and the first to ever quote it from Josephus).
We know Acts used Josephus as a source text for historical color, yet the author of Acts never noticed this passage as being about Jesus Christ (which is inexplicable, given that if it was, then it shows Jews being punished for persecuting Christians, exactly the kind of thing the author of Acts strove to include; instead, Acts never mentions this James even being martyred).
If Josephus had written this passage as about the persecution of Christians, he would have explained things, as is his style consistently in all his historical writing; only a Christian would just assume all those obscure things were already known to the reader (like what a “Christ” was; that James was a Christian; that Jews sought to kill Christians; and why, we must then suppose, the Jewish elite and Roman authorities opposed the killing of James if he was a Christian).
The words tou legomenou christou, “the [one] called Christ,” is for these and many other reasons most likely a marginal note (by Origen or Pamphilus, or another scribe or scholar in the same Library of Caesarea), expressing belief rather than fact (possibly trying to find the passage Origen claimed he’d seen here but mistakenly saw instead in Hegesippus).
That marginal note was then accidentally interpolated into the manuscript produced or used by Eusebius (which would have been a copy of the one used by Origen), a very common form of scribal error.
Possibly by replacing ton tou damnaiou, “the son of Damneus,” in the same place. That same line is repeated at the end of the story. Repetition of that identical phrase a few lines after may have led a scribe to suspect the marginal note was correcting a dittograph (an accidental duplication caused by a previous scribe skipping some lines by mistake, starting at the “wrong” Jesus in the story). But more likely, that duplication is exactly what Josephus meant: Ananus is punished for killing the brother of Jesus ben Damneus by being deposed and replaced by Jesus ben Damneus.
All arguments against interpolation in print to date have assumed the entire passage was interpolated (not just the one phrase) and that it was deliberate (instead of accidental or conjectural). Consequently, none of those opinions is citeable. Because they have not taken into account this alternative theory of the evidence or the evidence in support of it.
https://www.richardcarrier.information/archives/12071#james
or that Paul's references to Jesus being a descendant of David and born to a woman mean what they seem to mean, or assuming that Paul's reference to "the brother of the Lord" refers to just another Christian even though "the brother of the Lord" is clearly applied to James alone and not to the other Christians who are mentioned in the same sentence. No, none of that evidence is good enough. It's far better methodology to compare Jesus to a list of traits of mythological hero figures to see if he looks like a myth.
In truth, Carrier counts these as evidence for historicity in some cases. So, this is just missing the boat, more, Manetho.
But for further reading, rather than dismissals I've found some pieces to address each of these.
Paul's references to Jesus being a descendant of David
The best response a historicist can make to Paul’s choice of phrasing is that Paul must be echoing an early belief in some kind of virgin birth theology that was already being attributed to Jesus, that he is describing God manufacturing Jesus’s body in the womb of Mary using Davidic seed. Though Paul never says that exactly (he never mentions Mary, and only mentions Jesus having a mother in an extended argument elsewhere that declares the mothers he is speaking of are allegorical). But notably, this is exactly what the Gospel nativities display: in neither Matthew nor Luke is Jesus biologically descended from Davidic seed (Joseph never imparts that seed to Mary); he is directly manufactured in the womb of Mary by God (or by the Holy Spirit, acting as God’s agent).
So how can even the Gospels mean Jesus was born of the seed of David? They must be assuming exactly what I propose: that God took the seed of David and used it to manufacture a body for Jesus. In other words, miraculously. Not biologically. And if they can imagine God doing that, Paul could imagine God doing it. And if Paul imagined God doing it, he could as easily imagine God doing it in outer space as on earth. Because where a miracle happens is no longer bound to reality. It’s no longer actually a historical event (just one believed to be, but we well know never happened), hence no longer limited by earth biology.
read the whole piece
Paul's reference to "the brother of the Lord" refers to just another Christian even though "the brother of the Lord" is clearly applied to James alone and not to the other Christians who are mentioned in the same sentence. No, none of that evidence is good enough.
Hence I’ve long noted this is the best evidence there is for historicity. I even count it as 2 to 1 in favor of historicity in OHJ. The problem, however, is not the validity of the argument, but its soundness. A sound argument has to be not only valid, but its premises also have to be well-established as true—and not in doubt. Otherwise any doubt we have in the premises transfers to the conclusion, and we then have to doubt the conclusion as much or even more. And ample doubts exist as to the central premise: that Paul ever says he knew an actual biological brother of Jesus (much less a Jesus “of Nazareth,” since Paul never mentions anything like Nazareth or “Nazarene” being connected to Jesus).
Given what we have from Paul, this is just as likely, if not more likely, than the alternative reading, because we have evidence direct from Paul that he knows of cultic Brothers of the Lord (as in Romans 8:29 he says all Christians are brothers of the Lord), but no evidence he knows of biological brothers of the Lord, a significantly different category of person. So when Paul says “Brothers of the Lord,” he never says which kind he means; and had he known that there were two different kinds of such brothers, the cultic and the biological, he would need to clarify which he meant. That he never clarifies which he meant, means he only knew of one kind. And the only kind of such brother we can clearly establish he knew, was the cultic. And if even that doesn’t move you, he still doesn’t tell you which he meant; so you can’t otherwise claim to know.
So on this, while Carrier leaves this as good evidence, as far as we can muster, for historicity, there's plenty to question about it. It's worth considering, at the least.
This is why it feels like we're getting nowhere, though, on this. No one's really getting much into it. They have lead with their assumptions about Carrier and his work and have failed to actually give it a serious go. Hey, that's fine. I have no issue with people just following the majority. But doing so does not provide a good argument. it does not defeat a minority held position. It amounts to something more along the lines of "i don't want to think that way". And that's just not how this should work.
“Every one of us is, in the cosmic perspective, precious. If a human disagrees with you, let him live. In a hundred billion galaxies, you will not find another.”
― Carl Sagan, Cosmos