Res Ipsa wrote: ↑Wed Nov 30, 2022 9:53 pm
Okay, but applying what Armstrong said, Shades is part of the "we" that isn't part of the premodern world. The best we have in this modern (post-modern world) is the acknowledged fact that fictional stories can communicate certain truths that aren't tied to factual or historical accuracy. But if there is this fundamental distinction between premodern thought and modern/post-modern thought, when did the transition happen? Did Smith live in the premodern area? What evidence do we have that Smith and his contemporaries considered the distinction between mythos and logos in the way that ancient geeks did? When Tolkien wrote the Lord of the Rings Trilogy, did he understand what he was doing the same (but not selfsame) way that Homer understood what he was doing when he wrote the Illiad?
I read something somewhere (you'll have to forgive the vagueness here, but I can't remember the exact source) that Tolikien was indeed trying to forge a mythology for Britain or England. If this is so, then did understand he was doing the same kind of thing Homer was doing.
In any case, in the same link, Armstrong goes on to say:
By the eighteenth century, however, the people of Europe and America had achieved such astonishing success in science and technology that they began to think that logos was the only means to truth and began to discount mythos as false and superstitious…
Our religious experience in the modern world has changed, and because an increasing number of people regard scientific rationalism alone as true, they have often tried to turn the mythos of their faith into logos. Fundamentalists have also made this attempt. This confusion has led to more problems.
How this applies to Joseph is not fully prepared to explicate, yet. Right now, this is just an idea that is crashing around in my head, and I'm just banging it out. I no longer have a copy, but I remember Quinn talking about this in
Mormonism and the Magic World View. If I recall correctly, Quinn was basically saying that Joseph the clockwork-universe-world that is characteristic of modernity. So in that sense, we could say he was premodern. Yet he was also still part a world that was rapidly modernizing and was certainly aware of some scientific developments. See, for example, Hel. 12:15. So in that sense, we could say he was modern. But really he is in a state of anomie, with one foot in the premodern world and the other in the modern world.
Res Ipsa wrote: ↑Wed Nov 30, 2022 9:53 pm
Based on how Smith talked about the Book of Mormon peoples in reference to actual geographical locations, isn't it reasonable to conclude that he viewed the book as a literal history of actual people in a real place? And based on how the faithful have viewed the book at its creation and over time, that they understood the book in exactly the same way? Or was Joseph Smith's world that of the premodern with a transition that we can identify between the 1830s and 2022?
You'll remember in response to your question,
Do you think Smith thought of the Book of Mormon as an “instructive story about the past” as contrasted with a record of literally true events that took place in the Americas?
I responded
Personally, I don't think Joseph would have recognized there was a difference.... I would say that he simply accepted it as literally true events, much as most common people of his time simply accepted the historicity of Adam or the Tower of Babel.
Likely, most of his early followers were much the same; they simply accepted it as historical. Mind you, we are not at the state of fundamentalism yet (what we would now call fundamentalism is a fully modernist phenomena, and if I am correct, Joseph, his followers, and most common people weren't truly modernists). How I would tentatively describe this while taking Armstrong as my cue would be to say mythos was being elided into logos. They simply didn't have the tools we now have to do otherwise.